Our society uses base 10; thus, 1 + 1 = 2. Try converting your 1 + 1 mathematical sentence to another base and see if you can find one that will equal 3~here are the directions to convert bases~
http://www.britannica.com/eb/article-205799
2006-06-17 10:21:33
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answer #1
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answered by soplaw2001 5
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Well, 2 is defined as the successor of 1, ie 1+1. Suppose by contradiction that 2=3. Then 2-2=3-2 which implies 2-2=(1+2)-2 by the definition of 3. 2-2=1+(2-2) by the associative axiom of addition. 0=1+0 by the definion of the additive inverse. This now implies that 0=1. By the non-triviality axiom that the multiplicative identity is not equal to the additive identity, a contradiction is obtained. Therefore 1+1 is not 3.
2006-06-17 21:27:46
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answer #2
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answered by Stochastic 2
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1 + 1 = 2 live with it
2006-06-17 17:19:06
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Becouse 1 + 1 = 2, and not 3. Deal with the fact bro.
thease are what = 3:
1 + 2 = 3
6 [divided by] 2 = 3
and probily more...
2006-06-17 17:29:13
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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its a government coverup. imagine if the truth did come out and 1+1 did equal 3. do you know what kind of catastrophe we would have on our hands? The millenium clock problem would be nothing compared to this.
2006-06-17 18:25:46
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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In theory it is.I assume you are referring to whole numbers.one 2 and one 1 are equal to 3.Two is actually one number and 1 is actually one number.The total is 3
2006-06-17 17:28:19
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answer #6
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answered by shaw2bear2 2
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Because the third 1 got disgusted with the other two and moved out! hehehe
2006-06-17 17:21:01
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answer #7
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answered by snl 3
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1+1=3 if 1 is really 1.4 and you are rounding to the nearest whole number.
1.4+1.4=2.8 which rounds to 3
2006-06-17 18:33:30
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answer #8
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answered by curiouscat 3
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same reason 1x1 =1 and 1x2=2 it's just the way our number system works
2006-06-17 17:20:40
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answer #9
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answered by lily 3
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and what's a snarl anyway (consider me ignorant ...)
2006-06-17 17:26:54
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answer #10
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answered by David Y 5
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