2006-06-17 08:36:35 · 6 answers · asked by masterstamp 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
The Act of Union was passed by the Parliaments of England and Scotland in 1707 (when Queen Anne reigned) which formally united England and Scotland as the Kingdom of Great Britain, making the title "King (or Queen) of Scotland" superfluous. Charles I and II reigned in the mid-17th century, when Scotland was still a distinct political entity -- thus, "King of Scotland".
2006-06-17 09:24:56 · answer #1 · answered by ensign183 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because at the time they were kings and queens of England, England and Scotland were separate, independent countries. By the time it got down to Charles I and II, the two were united, so one crown fit all...
2006-06-17 11:47:36 · answer #2 · answered by old lady 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Are you sure they weren't - I thought all the monarchs between James the VI and I and Anne (first monarch of British throne) were crowned as both English and Scottish king/queen. Certainly I have seen James II referred to as James VII and II on inscriptions in Edinburgh.
2006-06-17 09:58:29 · answer #3 · answered by Rotifer 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'm guessing Chuck I and Chuck II had a big honking army and the support of Parliament while Jim, Bill, Mary, and Anne did not.
2006-06-17 09:00:34 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Aslo, just as a sidenote, even still,, the king/queen is NOT king/queen of Scotland. they are king/queen of the Scots. the people, not the land. the land belongs to the people.
2006-06-18 11:20:39 · answer #5 · answered by rohanrider1313 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Perhaps they were Catholic.
2006-06-17 09:08:29 · answer #6 · answered by mouthbreather77 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋