The phrase "separation of church and state" does not appear in the Constitution, but rather is derived from a letter written by Thomas Jefferson to a group identifying themselves as the Danbury Baptists. In that letter, Jefferson referred to a "wall of separation between church and state."
If say, "prayer in school" was enforced by law, it would be unconstitutional because it would violate the first part of your quote. Laws cannot respect an establishment of religion. In essence, that's what separation of church and state is. (ANY church - not just Christian.) Prayer in school is an ESTABLISHMENT of religion.
I have no personal feeling, I'm just speaking about the law.
2006-06-17 06:49:50
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answer #1
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answered by truthyness 7
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It doesn't have those 'exact' words no but the following is the phrase that gives the meaning to the term seperation of church and state.......Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof.......the purpose if 2 fold...first it ensures that religious beliefs of any kind are not controlled by the government, and second it ensures that the government does not get involvedwith enforcing, mandating, or promoting particular religious doctrines. What was very clear in the Constitution is that the writers did not what the government in any way shape or form involved in the business of religion.
2006-06-17 06:58:15
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answer #2
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answered by ndmagicman 7
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It don't have those 'excellent' words no yet right here's the word that provides the which ability to the time period seperation of church and state.......Congress shall make no regulation respecting an institution of religion, or prohibiting the loose workout thereof.......the purpose if 2 fold...first it guarantees that non secular beliefs of any variety are not any more managed by ability of the authorities, and 2d it guarantees that the authorities does no longer get involvedwith imposing, mandating, or merchandising certain non secular doctrines. What replaced into very sparkling in the structure is that the writers did not what the authorities in any respect structure or type in contact in the agency of religion.
2016-10-14 06:15:00
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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What you are referring to is the Establishment Clause and Free Exercise Clause. It separates church and state because it prohibits the government from establishing, promoting, creating and preventing people from exercising the religion of their choice. The government does not create, support or promote any religion. So it very clearly separates the powers of the government and any relation to a particular organized religion. Do you see the distinction, it is pretty clear...
2006-06-17 06:51:32
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answer #4
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answered by zerocool2925 2
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Absolutely! the language came from a letter from Jefferson to, I believe, a Baptist group about two hundred years ago. It was intended to reassure them that the government would not interfere with their Church. Like so many ideas, it has been perverted (mostly by the Courts) to largely remove any reference to Divine Providence from the public square. The first part of the quote, the "Establishment" clause is what has caused all the litigation. The "Free Exercise" clause is virtually forgotten.
2006-06-17 06:53:03
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answer #5
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answered by aboukir200 5
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"Separation of church and state" is not specifically stated in The Constitution however the concept is grounded in the specific wording that you quoted.
There is a de-facto and de-jure separation of church and state drawn from that wording. There's no other way to interpret what was written in The Constitution. Like it or not, it is "The Law of the Land." Thank God!
2006-06-17 07:18:58
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answer #6
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answered by Bostonian In MO 7
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go to this site: http://candst.tripod.com/tnppage/tnpidx.htm
it states in the Constitution that the govt cannot respect an "establishment of religion", meaning the govt cannot endorse or support a religion (meaning that govt money cannot go to building a church or mosque, etc, etc)
... you need to remember, the framers of the Constitution liked to write direct things in long sentences with big words and verbs and nouns switched. Genius.
2006-06-17 07:03:27
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answer #7
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answered by Tarvold 3
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The first amendment protects freedom of religion and freedom of expression from government interference. It prohibits the government from passing legislation establishing a national religion or giving preferential treatment to one religion over another.
It comes out to the same thing.
2006-06-17 07:02:37
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answer #8
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answered by Tish 5
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Because that phrase in the constitution that you are quoting has over the years been defined to mean separation of church and state by the Supreme Courts over many, many administrations.
2006-06-17 08:39:19
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answer #9
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answered by kate 4
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Because the authors of the Bill of Rights, and the courts that have had to interpret that clause, have said it was a reaction to other governments that established "official" religions. Consequently, it has come to mean that the government is secular and religiously neutral.
2006-06-17 11:21:47
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answer #10
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answered by AnOrdinaryGuy 5
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