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6 answers

Of course. He began the practice of enslaving the natives to find gold. It was when most of the natives died out that the Spanish started importing Africans.

2006-06-16 12:45:11 · answer #1 · answered by EV 1 · 3 1

The kind of slavery you mean had nothing to do with the travels and works of the Genoese-born, Portuguese-educated, Spanish-sponsored explorer and adventurer "Christopher Columbus."

However, Columbus did impose slavery on some of the Indians on the islands he first visited. He came from a society that saw nothing wrong in imposing servitude on conquered peoples and held all people except his own as inferior - especially if they were not "Christians" in his definition of the term.

That slavery (compounded by disease, warfare and oppression) led to almost complete disappearance of the native peoples of the Caribbean - and created the conditions in which later Portuguese, Dutch and English slave traders found a need for the labor their hell-hole ships delivered.

So there is a small causal connection to Columbus. But not the one you were looking for.

2006-06-16 19:46:42 · answer #2 · answered by Der Lange 5 · 0 0

no, since he didn't own slaves. It was in fact the fault of religious fundamentalist preachers who kept telling their congregation that black people were in fact animals, not people.

2006-06-16 19:07:12 · answer #3 · answered by judy_r8 6 · 0 0

no he aint the spansh are but columbus aint

2006-06-16 19:24:52 · answer #4 · answered by chuck s 3 · 0 0

and how exactly did you get past grade 3? hypocrite.

2006-06-16 19:08:33 · answer #5 · answered by Foxy 4 · 0 0

No .

2006-06-16 19:25:08 · answer #6 · answered by jabbertalky62 2 · 0 0

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