According to Newton Garver in his article “What violence is” found in Violence in Modern Literature, “the Latin root of the word ‘violence’ is a combination of two Latin words: the word ‘vis’ (force) and the past participle of ‘latus’ of the word ‘fero’ (to carry). The Latin word ‘violare’ is itself a combination of these two words and its present participle ‘violans’ is a plausible source for the word ‘violence’, so that the word ‘violence’ in its etymological origin, has the sense of to carry force at or toward” (46).
My advisor believes that this etymology is wrong since she suspects that ‘violence’ comes from vi-o-latus which means, rather, “carry out something THROUGH force”. This would mean that ‘vis’ is the instrument (ablative case) NOT the object (accusative case) of the action.
Would you please help me clarify this problem?
2006-06-16
09:29:44
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7 answers
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asked by
Kmi
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Arts & Humanities
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