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According to Newton Garver in his article “What violence is” found in Violence in Modern Literature, “the Latin root of the word ‘violence’ is a combination of two Latin words: the word ‘vis’ (force) and the past participle of ‘latus’ of the word ‘fero’ (to carry). The Latin word ‘violare’ is itself a combination of these two words and its present participle ‘violans’ is a plausible source for the word ‘violence’, so that the word ‘violence’ in its etymological origin, has the sense of to carry force at or toward” (46).
My advisor believes that this etymology is wrong since she suspects that ‘violence’ comes from vi-o-latus which means, rather, “carry out something THROUGH force”. This would mean that ‘vis’ is the instrument (ablative case) NOT the object (accusative case) of the action.
Would you please help me clarify this problem?

2006-06-16 09:29:44 · 7 answers · asked by Kmi 2 in Arts & Humanities Other - Arts & Humanities

7 answers

You should read my answer to your previous question.

Again, your advisor's assertion is insupportable. "Ferro" is a verb that indicates phsyical carriage and is free of our sense "carry out" or "carry on." This is the root for words like "transfer" and "aquifer" (something that transports water). But no one has every said that the water in the aquifer is "lapidalatus," "carried by means of stone." It would be a very unusual Latin construction.

In literal translation, if we were to allow your advisor's grammatical labelling, "violatus" would translate to something like "carried or borne away from one place to another by means of someone's strength." This process is nothing like what we understand by the word "violence." I appreciate her attempt to make sense of a complex concept, but most professional etymologists do not acknowledge "latus" as a valid source of the word "violence."

The word has something to do with "vis," or "strength." The problem is that people are engaging in folk etymology, manipulating Latin to serve their own political or literal agenda. You should leave it at that.

2006-06-16 09:54:45 · answer #1 · answered by ? 3 · 2 0

I'm not so sure of your advisor's hypothesis because vis has an ablative form of vi rather than vio; it is a third declension noun (ablative is extreemly rare according to Lewis & Short).

accusative is vim, but I don't think we are looking at cases but just the indo-european root.

vis is related to vir, which means man (and follows the ancient stereotype that all men are powerfully strong creatures)

I disagree on the fero ferre tuli latus point however. Just look at the definitions of this word. It is possible that fero is at the root of this word. Offer, ferry, and translate all come from fero ferre tuli latus but have drastically different meanings. Because it an irregular verb, (like to be) it is a clue that it was used very frequently to mean many different things.

It is used quite frequently with a variety of meanings.

violentia is a Latin word, which shows that it is pretty old.

The lack of a Greek equivalent makes me wonder if it has an Etruscan origin.

In order to do a true study on this word, one would need to check every instance of violo and violentia and determine if it is more often used in a sense of carrying force to something, or conducting oneself in forceful manner (ablative of means).

I would theorize that it would be more ablative if the word appeared in the ablative more often. If it is in the nominative or accusative I would think that the emphasis would be on the force carried.

Keep in mind that fero takes the accusative.

You can look up the words on perseus and find each instance they are used. This is going to take a while and you could write another book on the subject.

Maybe you could explain why we have the "O" in violence if vis is a third declension noun without any O's.

bonum fortunam

2006-06-23 08:53:19 · answer #2 · answered by Discipulo legis, quis cogitat? 6 · 0 0

Acccording to Webster's new collegiate dictionary "violence" is derived from the word "violent" which was derived from the Latin "violare" "to violate".

2006-06-29 12:07:38 · answer #3 · answered by rich k 6 · 0 0

You are going Italian not Latin !!!Check and search your info the only word I found Latin is problem.

2006-06-28 21:18:11 · answer #4 · answered by p_valdivez 4 · 0 0

at the same time as i think a magister is a instructor of little ones, a literal translation of "information of preparation little ones" is: scientia docendi liberorum. obviously, in case you recommend an information of little ones who teach, which I doubt you do, which will be: scientia docentum liberorum.

2016-10-14 05:40:41 · answer #5 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Wow I could so care less lol

2006-06-30 05:00:54 · answer #6 · answered by Zork 1 · 0 0

No.

2006-06-30 09:44:47 · answer #7 · answered by Thomas R 1 · 0 0

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