2006-06-16 02:33:05 · 11 answers · asked by bono 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
The best way to get a reliable answer to this question is to call Lawyers in your State and ask if they will give you an initial free consultation for a Divorce. Many Attorneys offer such an interview and you can ask questions specific to your problem and get informed, professional answers. To find Lawyers that handle Family Matters including Divorce in your area try an online site like http://www.divorcenet.com
2006-06-16 02:39:17 · answer #1 · answered by cc smith 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It varies from state to state but most states now have what is refered as no-fault divorce. This basically means that either partner can file for divorce and doesn't have to state a reason why. The courts don't really look at the reasons for the divorce or even if one partner was cheating. Now the 50-50 rule isn't always true it depends on the circumstances of each partner. Best to get professional advice from a lawyer before getting a divorce.
2006-06-16 09:39:16 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Different states have different laws applying to post separation sexual relationships. Some states allow for non-penalty so long as the coupling was done after there was actual separation. Other states make any sexual contact before the final divorce decree a basis for arguments over the property settlement and in some extreme cases an absolute bar on alimony or palimony. The general rule is that property settlement is done 50/50 of actual martial property (check your state's definitions) and the court is allowed to make adjustments as they see fit when looking at the particular facts of the case. I would contact a family lawyer in your area to get a more comprehensive answer.
2006-06-16 09:41:22 · answer #3 · answered by la femme d'argent 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Usually. But if the other partner suspects that the other was probably cheating before because they found someone else so fast. then they need to protest that and see if they can prove it. If so they could probably get more than half.
2006-06-16 09:39:09 · answer #4 · answered by bree30 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
depends on the state and the lawyers, other partners do not and should not matter but i would wait 180 days before getting another partner just incase.
2006-06-16 09:41:36 · answer #5 · answered by montanamom 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That depends on the laws of your state. Each state has different rules about community property. You'll need to ask an attorney that question.
2006-06-16 09:35:27 · answer #6 · answered by Dr. Doom 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depend, but mostly is always 50-50.
2006-06-16 09:35:22 · answer #7 · answered by BelleVie 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Everything is 50-50 when you are married. Doesn't matter who has who else.
2006-06-16 09:42:21 · answer #8 · answered by in love with superman 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
only what they bought together after the marriage if you had a house before that will remain with you if you bought one together it will have to be sold to split are one has to buy the other out
2006-06-16 09:42:09 · answer #9 · answered by ? 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no i was in a family like that and my dad got full rights.
2006-06-16 09:36:35 · answer #10 · answered by adrian_brown6 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋