Infosys has annouched that they are going to give share to their shareholder with ratio 1:1. if you have one share ,then you will getting another share. right?
Till now I don't have any share with Infosys, If I am going to buy a share now, am I eligible to get the other one?
2006-06-16 00:32:48 · 3 answers · asked by Murphy 1 in Business & Finance ➔ Investing
Firms are required to announce the dates that stock splits take affect. If you buy before that date, you will get the shares when it splits.
That being said, there are two things you ought to know. The first is that it doesn't mean you will make money. If a $100 per share stock splits it means that you will have two shares worth $50.
The second is that it doesn't look like Infosys is about to split. There is no notice about it listed in the News section of Yahoo! Finance. In addition, the stock recently hit its 52-week low. Stocks tend to split after they have reached a new high. I doubt that Infosys will have a stock split for a very long time.
2006-06-16 00:43:48 · answer #1 · answered by Ranto 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Usually, the press release should mention a "closing date"... i.e, shareholders will receive 1 shares for each shares they hold at the end of the trading day on June 24th".... If the date hasn't passed yet, then yes, you would be eligible
2006-06-16 00:36:50 · answer #2 · answered by EphraimD 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I suggest you to contact their Investor Relations Department and ask them.
2006-06-16 07:01:54 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋