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2006-06-15 19:10:29 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference Homework Help

6 answers

It entirely depends on the situation. Going to South America, for instance, you'll find that it is better to speak Spanish than to speak Danish.
But.. in an abstract view, no language is better than any other. They are simply diffetent. They show the world and ideas in a different way. That's all. Criteria as "it sounds/looks awful" are simply personal and have no basis.

2006-06-16 02:21:38 · answer #1 · answered by kamelåså 7 · 1 0

Linguists (by which I mean people who study language - not necessarily people who speak many languages) generally take it as axiomatic that ...

a) no language is more or less capable of expressing an idea than any other language AND

b) no language is more or less primitive/developed than any other.

The reasons given are ...

...for a) that any language needing to express a certain idea will either invent a word or expression for it or borrow one from another language.

AND for b) that all languages have evolved over similar long periods of time (although the labels given to them, such as 'Dutch', 'Chinese' may have changed), that all have complexities and simplicities that contrast with eachother.

It is a common form of (often subconscious) chauvinism on speakers of just about any language to assume that their language is inherently more capable of expressing ideas than other languages. While it may be true to say - in some very limited areas - that language A 'has more words for' a certain type of thing than language B does, this is just because speakers of that language have more use for expressing those meanings/distinctions than speakers of language B. If language B speakers needed to 'mean' these things, they'd find a way of expressing it quite easily.

Similarly, explorers to distant lands in the 18th and 19th centuries sometimes made the gross mistake of assuming that the languages of 'primitive' peoples they encountered were also 'primitive' languages and inferior in the expressions available or in their structure. This is a fallacy. If you look at features of languages such as number of speech sounds, complexity of verb forms, complexity of case, gender and number forms etc., there is no correlation at all between complexities in the language and development of the societies where it is spoken.

Much is often made of, for example, a small number of indigenous languages of South America where tribal people have words for 'one', 'two', and then 'a great many'. This is not a limitation of the speakers' language but of their experience and needs. If speakers of these languages needed a way of saying '308', they'd invent or borrow one.

So, no.

2006-06-22 03:05:34 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Huh?

2006-06-16 02:16:14 · answer #3 · answered by Young,Sexy&Educated 3 · 0 0

well, english is a world launguage, but then again, its very hard to learn. meh

2006-06-16 02:15:28 · answer #4 · answered by Pie Man 5 · 0 0

yes the one you can communicate with, it is a tool.

2006-06-16 02:13:44 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

depends on what country your in

2006-06-16 02:14:17 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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