50% For the first
49.02% for two in a row
48.98% for three in a row
2006-06-15 18:04:39
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answer #1
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answered by nevyn55025 6
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I am working on that section right now. Just did the black question. The first time is 1/2 ...(26 red cards, 52 total cards.) Second one will be 25/51 and the third draw is 12/25 (24/50)
1/2 * 25/51 * 12/25 = 3/17 reduced. Or, if you want to write out the equation it is
C26,3
---------
C52,3
whichever way is easier or the way they want you to do it.....:)
good luck!
2006-06-15 18:10:54
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answer #2
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answered by sara101usaf 2
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Half the cards are red.
So to draw one, the chance is 26/52 (or 50%)
To draw a second one would be 25/51, since there is already a red card out of the deck (the first card you drew)
and then for the third card, it would be 24/50, since there are already two red cards out of the deck.
so, 26*25*24/52*51*50 = 15600/132600 or about 11.76%
2006-06-15 18:08:15
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answer #3
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answered by double_nubbins 5
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1/2 X 1/2 X 1/2 = 1 in 8! (Actually this is a rough approximation.)
The exact chances are:
26/52 X 25/51 X 24/50 = you do this calculation!
2006-06-15 18:05:52
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answer #4
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answered by Doctor J 7
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there are 52 cards, 26 are red, without jokers
26/52 + 25/51 + 24/50 (without replacement)
75/153 = .491 or 49.1%
26/52 + 26/52 + 26/52(with replacement)
78/156 = .5 or 50%
add up the denominators and then the numerators, its much easier, just finished my stat class, got 98% in the class
2006-06-15 20:49:05
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answer #5
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answered by Sue S 3
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for nonreplaceable:
there are 26 red cards& u want to draw 3 red cards in a row.
(26/52)*(25/51)*(24/50)
answer is ..........well u know to calculate
2006-06-15 18:12:00
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answer #6
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answered by pavitra 2
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26/52 * 25/51 * 24/50
= 11.76% (without replacement)
with replacement is 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/8
Of course there are no jokers in the deck either.
2006-06-15 18:05:46
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answer #7
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answered by stephenfournier 2
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there are 26 red cards in a deck of cards .and 54 cards in total
26*25*24/54*53*52(without replacement)
26*26*25/54*54*54(with replacement)
2006-06-15 19:57:57
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answer #8
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answered by halleberry_aus 4
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according to my calculations the chances of that is equal to the hypothesis of the triangle divided by the multiples of the square times 4.93 plus pie!!!
2006-06-15 18:11:51
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answer #9
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answered by abs of steel 3
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1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/8 or 12.5%
2006-06-15 18:04:12
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answer #10
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answered by markbesada 2
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