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If we eliminate their right are we denying democracy?
Or if we leave them the right to vote, are we forgetting that they broke the law, and that the right to vote is a civil right not a human right? Therefor the government can deny them their right,

2006-06-15 14:15:04 · 17 answers · asked by Marie 3 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

17 answers

What a great question!

Only in an ideal world do ideals work in an ideal way. In our real world, it is much more likely for a poor person to be convicted of a felony than a rich person. So effectively, when EX-felons are denied the franchise, poor communities are denied equal representation.

Read some law articles on the difference between de facto and de jure; I'm sure you'll find the subject interesting and enlightening.

2006-06-15 14:24:08 · answer #1 · answered by kill_yr_television 7 · 0 0

First off we are a Republic. A true democracy has NEVER existed.

Felons have violated societies laws sufficient enought to be sent to prison. Not being able to vote is a consequence of not having enough respect for society to follow the rules.

In a real sense, once a person is a felon they are not Americans because they loose the right to vote and then they have controls on what rights they have through various sanctions (ie parole).

2006-06-16 02:40:55 · answer #2 · answered by .45 Peacemaker 7 · 0 0

Felon disenfranchisement laws have long been accepted in the American legal system and easily pass constitutional muster.

Almost every state in the Union - forty-eight out of fifty - forbids felons from voting to varying degrees. The District of Columbia also has a felon disenfranchisement law on its books. Some states have restored the franchise to felons who have finished serving their sentences, the vast majority of states have continued to retain and adopt laws that prohibit felons from voting during their terms in prison.

Tthe political left has championed felon voting rights as its latest cause celebre. The issue gained additional traction recently after several academics noted that Democratic presidential candidate Al Gore would have triumphed in Florida in 2000 and won the presidency had felons been permitted to vote in that state. Isn't that a good enough reason to keep the laws on the books?

2006-06-15 23:43:50 · answer #3 · answered by MeinOH 3 · 0 0

the right to vote is always a civil right. back in the greek days they had the ostrakon, which became the english word ostracized. they would break a jar and people would pick up the pieces and vote by writing on them whether a citizen would be expelled from the city. barring felons from voting for life is arbitrary and cruel, but so was getting banished back in the greek and roman days. society reserves the right to protect itself by any means necessary, as you might have noticed in the papers.

2006-06-15 21:22:48 · answer #4 · answered by charlemagne666 1 · 0 0

No, convicted felons should not have the right to vote. They gave up the right to participate in our democratic republic when they decided to harm others and deny the victims their right to life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness.

2006-06-15 21:22:36 · answer #5 · answered by The Empress 2 · 0 0

whats the difference between the felons in JAIL and the Felons and Criminals in Washington ? NONE so i would say YES everyone has the right to express there vote

2006-06-22 13:44:42 · answer #6 · answered by joeblack605 2 · 0 0

When someone breaks the law, they give up their right to vote, hold public office, own firearms or at least their supposed to, but this is the good old USA. Just look at all the crooked politicians and oil companies that rape us everyday.

2006-06-15 21:23:21 · answer #7 · answered by bobemac 7 · 0 0

Absolutely not! Criminals know they are breaking the law when they commit the crime. They are gambling that they won't get caught. They make a choice to break the law and jeopardize loosing their freedom (if incarcerated) and all that goes along with that freedom. They do the crime...they do the time...and loose rights that are saved for law abiding citizens.

2006-06-15 21:20:43 · answer #8 · answered by just a mom 4 · 0 0

When someone commits a crime and are found guilty, they are punished. When they have completed the terms of that punishment (i.e. - prison time, parole, restitution, etc) they are considered rehabilitated. They are not less human. They are our equals and deserve the same rights. Why would they NOT have the same rights would be more the question here...

2006-06-16 01:36:23 · answer #9 · answered by Justine 1 · 0 0

I think it all depends on the type of crime was committed.And Whether or not they are remorseful and are willing to be a useful member of society.

2006-06-15 21:21:21 · answer #10 · answered by Mommy Dearest 5 · 0 0

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