2006-06-15 12:52:30 · 8 answers · asked by dandawggg 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Books & Authors
Macbeth (d 1058) King of Moray, was elected King of Scotland in place of Duncan's son Malcolm, who was only a child, and for 14 years Macbeth is believed to have ruled equably, imposing law and order and encouraging devout Christianity.
Shakespeare got the story from Holinshead's "Chronicles of England, Scotland and Ireland" (a history). Holinshead was not particularly accurate (and neither was Shakespeare's play), but Macbeth was, in truth, a Scottish king - so where else would he set it?
Read more about Shakespeare and Macbeth here:
http://www.bbc.co.uk/dna/h2g2/A4455434
2006-06-15 14:53:15 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because that's where the thanes were.
P.S. There really was a MacBeth.
2006-06-15 13:22:21 · answer #2 · answered by gremwal 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because that's where MacBeth lived - he was a Scot.
2006-06-16 03:42:41 · answer #3 · answered by JBTexas 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't know the exact reason but scotland is beautiful if you have looked at it. It is nice and green with lovely old castles.
2006-06-15 15:31:31 · answer #4 · answered by Flower child 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
you could not have the scottish play set in wales
2006-06-15 12:58:38 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
it was for king james I, who was also king of scotland.
I believe one of the characters was the Kings relative or something.
2006-06-15 13:01:58 · answer #6 · answered by bOb 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the end justifies the means
2006-06-15 12:58:40 · answer #7 · answered by rjb2k6 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
he liked men wearing skirts!
2006-06-15 13:17:29 · answer #8 · answered by *~dazzling.black~* 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋