Keppler's law verses inertial time dilation
2006-06-15 05:58:37 · 3 answers · asked by goring 6 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
question is the equivalency of Time.
2006-06-15 06:09:44 · update #1
Kepler's laws are simply empirical rules. What really predicts planetary motion is Newton's theory of gravity, which confirms Kepler's laws. It also explains most of the deviations from those laws as due to gravitational perturbation from other planets.
Einstein's general relativity adds very little to Newton's calculations for our solar system. Newton calculated that the precession of Mercury's orbit should be 531 arc-seconds per century. General relativity correctly accounted for the full 574 arc-seconds. I'm not sure if you can work time dilation per se into that, but that's the most significant modification to Newton/Kepler by general relativity that I know of. (disclaimer - I am not a physicist)
Re the equivalency of time: There is a time standard based on the center of the sun that is used for these calculations, to eliminate gravitational effects on the time base.
2006-06-15 06:47:11 · answer #1 · answered by injanier 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
This is a terrible query. There isn't any such factor a gravitational mass. There is weight, the drive of gravity, and there may be mass, a degree of inertia. But there is not any gravitational mass. a million. The drive of gravity is measured by means of hanging the item on a rest room scale and studying off the importance, the load. This works it doesn't matter what planet your toilet is on. two. The mass is discovered by means of noting the load W and dividing by means of the correct gravity discipline force g. That is m = W/g. You can discover g = GM/r^two as soon as you realize the planet's mass M and radius r to the skin (assuming you are at the floor). three. The drive of gravity, weight, is discovered by means of weighing it on Earth or another planet. It's nonetheless the load. four. Yes, we will do this however why while m = W/g is way less difficult. Otherwise, m = F/a. five. Huh? If U is the preliminary velocity and S is the gap traveled, the one relation we will placed in combination this is t = S/U, time traveled, if and provided that V = U in order that acceleration A = zero. No mass m right here.
2016-09-09 02:09:10 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What about it? What's your question on the subject?
2006-06-15 06:03:02 · answer #3 · answered by TKO 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋