firstbasemen drops a FOUL popup from the games first batter.ruled and error. the pitcher then get that batter out plus the next 26. Is this a perfect game with the error on the board?
2006-06-15 01:40:16 · 21 answers · asked by frank p 1 in Sports ➔ Baseball
No, there is an error. No perfect game.
2006-06-15 01:45:34 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Since 1991, a perfect game has been defined by Major League Baseball as a game in which a pitcher pitches a complete game victory that lasts a minimum of nine innings and in which no opposition player reaches first base. In short, the pitcher cannot allow any hits, walks, hit batters, or any other baserunners for any reason, even if they are thrown out trying for extra bases. By definition, a perfect game must be both a no-hitter and a shutout. . An error which does not allow a baserunner, such as a misplayed foul ball, does not spoil a perfect game.
If the runner reaches base for any reason the perfect game would be ruined. However since this error does not result in a runner reaching base the perfect game is still in tact.
2006-06-15 11:50:39 · answer #2 · answered by cheech110977 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
YES IT WOULD BE A PERFECT GAME, and don't listen to any of the morons who try to tell you that it isn't. If 1st hitter hits foul ball and first baseman drops it, it may be ruled an error, that's fine. The definition of a perfect game is no baserunners (ie no walks, no hits). This runner didn't reach base. To take it a step further:
Let's say your first hitter hits the ball to the second baseman, and he throws the ball over the first baseman's head, allowing the runner to get to first base it would still be a perfect game because an error is not the pitcher's fault. Same reason why if that runner scored it wouldn't count as an Earned Run.
I wish people who actually knew the answer's gave them on here instead of guessing and looking dumb :)!
2006-06-15 09:38:34 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Tyler D wrote :
"YES IT WOULD BE A PERFECT GAME, and don't listen to any of the morons who try to tell you that it isn't. If 1st hitter hits foul ball and first baseman drops it, it may be ruled an error, that's fine. The definition of a perfect game is no baserunners (ie no walks, no hits). This runner didn't reach base. To take it a step further:
Let's say your first hitter hits the ball to the second baseman, and he throws the ball over the first baseman's head, allowing the runner to get to first base it would still be a perfect game because an error is not the pitcher's fault. Same reason why if that runner scored it wouldn't count as an Earned Run.
I wish people who actually knew the answer's gave them on here instead of guessing and looking dumb :)! "
Please refer to the PERFECT answer from cheech110977-
Maybe you could restore some credibility if you were to acknowledge your error and perform the proper mea culpa.
"I wish people who actually knew the answer's gave them on here instead of guessing and looking dumb :)! " - TYLER D
2006-06-15 17:16:23 · answer #4 · answered by browntbdd 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's a perfect game. The pitcher faces the minimum 27 batters with a 0.00 WHIP.
A runner WOULD NOT reach base on a FOUL pop-up if dropped.
2006-06-15 09:15:44 · answer #5 · answered by bucksbeat 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nope, It would be a perfect game. A dropped foul pop-up could be classed as an error (because of the rule which states if a misplay extends the batters time at bat), but I doubt this one would have been scored as an error.
27 up, 27 down, that's a perfect a game as you can have!
2006-06-15 08:53:14 · answer #6 · answered by br549 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That dropped pop-up would NOT be ruled an error. It would only be ruled an error if that batter subsequently got on base in any way in the same at-bat.
No error = perfect game.
2006-06-15 09:24:16 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It would be a perfect game.
What would suck though would be the catcher dropping the third strike and that batter reaching first. The pitcher could still have 27 strikeouts but not a perfect game (really 28 strikeouts).
Improbable..yes Impossible ....no
2006-06-15 10:20:31 · answer #8 · answered by working_four_ds 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, the def. of a perfect game is that nobody reaches base
"An error which does not allow a baserunner, such as a misplayed foul ball, does not spoil a perfect game" Wikipedia
2006-06-15 08:55:33 · answer #9 · answered by bkbarile 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Theres NO SUCH THING AS A PERFECT TEAM OR GAME IT DOESNT MATTER IF YOU WIN!! THERES ALWAYS A ARGUMENT BETTWEEN THE COACHES ON MY TEAM T.V. OR anywhere....
Youll never find something like that.. Theres a runner on third Batter hits it and hits the dude on 3rd and he's out.. called a running play.... Theres is a ways for a perfect game but i dont think it will ever happen...
Yankeesboi101
2006-06-15 09:55:24 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If no one reach base, perfect game. You said the pitcher recovered the ball and got the out? Perfect Game!!!!!
2006-06-15 12:53:42 · answer #11 · answered by Mountain Dragon 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋