2006-06-14 16:53:11 · 7 answers · asked by Juventina 6 in Sports ➔ Football ➔ FIFA World Cup (TM)
Yes I am talking about the World Cup!!
2006-06-14 17:05:36 · update #1
Come on soccer_mind don't tell me I stumped you???
2006-06-14 17:09:59 · update #2
Last answer nearly right - Luisito Monti did indeed play for Argentina in 1930, but he played for Italy in 1934, not Uruguay....
2006-06-14 21:13:41 · answer #1 · answered by eriverpipe 7 · 3⤊ 2⤋
It is impossible: once that a player (with dual citizenship) has chosen a Country, he cannot play for ANY OTHER Country.
They are correct with Monti: he played the Final game for Argentina and (for political reasons) with Italy, just before FIFA established the above rule.
1930 final with Argentina - Uruguay 4 Argentina 2
1934 final with Italy - Italy 2 Czechoslovakia 1
Also if we want to be "politically correct", Monti was not the only one: few players (like MiloÅ¡eviÄ, StankoviÄ, ÄorÄeviÄ, etc...) played in the Finals with Jugoslavia and now they are playing with Serbia-Montenegro.
Di Stefano too played for two counties, and not three (Argentina and Spain), but he never made it to a World Cup final.
2006-06-15 00:05:21 · answer #2 · answered by soccer_mind 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Luis Monti, he played for Argentina in 1930 and for Uruguay in 1934.
di Steffano...represented three countries Argentina, Colombia and Spain but never made it to world cup final.
2006-06-15 00:13:45 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you are talking about the World Cup, then no one.
2006-06-14 23:59:14 · answer #4 · answered by baires70 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I dont know
2006-06-15 01:07:21 · answer #5 · answered by Your best friend 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
its a typical one hmm i dont know
2006-06-15 00:00:11 · answer #6 · answered by love is life 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
??????????????????????????????
2006-06-14 23:56:23 · answer #7 · answered by BrinkleyNicole 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋