I can proove...
2006-06-14 15:25:01 · 14 answers · asked by Microsoft.NET 4 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
hey folks c'mon
2006-06-14 15:36:02 · update #1
1= 1/2 +1/2
That is two "1/2"s
That was easy.
2006-06-14 15:27:52 · answer #1 · answered by scott_d_webb 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
2
2006-06-14 15:28:12 · answer #2 · answered by Anry 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1 double =2
2006-06-14 15:29:34 · answer #3 · answered by Jimmy 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The evidence is in the pooding. LOL In my e book a million = 2 if both products that make up both are a million unit. Making 2 = a million for this reason a million = 2. yet another get jointly is a million canine weighs three hundred kilos and a pair of alternative canine weigh one hundred fifty kilos. The a million canine is an similar as both different canine. a million = 2!
2016-10-30 22:12:42 · answer #4 · answered by harib 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends on what the (1) is composed of. You're not asking if (1) + something equals (2), your question is, if (1) can equal (2), of course it can. Example, if someone asked you how many sheets of 2 part carbon paper you wanted, your answer could be (1), in this case, it would actually mean (2), because a set of 2 part carbon paper consists of (2) sheets.
2006-06-15 06:20:44 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
what the hell is that? 1 is 1 and 2 is 2.
2006-06-14 15:30:27 · answer #6 · answered by James Bond 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
As someone already exposed the falacy of:
(m+n)(m-n) = (m-n)n i.e. 2*0 = 0 = 1*0
I will simply leave you with, in the singular modular system
1(mod 1) = 2(mod 1)
problem solved.
2006-06-14 16:53:53 · answer #7 · answered by Karman V 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
sure.
0/1 = 0
0/2 = 0
so by substitution...
0/1 = 0/2
so 0 = 0 and 1 = 2
2006-06-14 15:30:21 · answer #8 · answered by Steven B 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Let m = n = 1.
Then m = n.
Then m^2 = mn.
Then m^2 - n^2 = mn - n^2.
Then (m+n)(m-n) = (m-n)n.
Then m+n = n.
So 1+1 = 1.
So 1 = 2.
Prove me wrong, Math is cool!
edit: Rats, foiled again!
2006-06-14 15:29:03 · answer #9 · answered by blahb31 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Show us the proof, and I can find the flaw. If you can prove 1=2, you can then prove anything you want.
2006-06-14 15:28:18 · answer #10 · answered by Amarkov 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋