Law of exponents is the more easily understood, and straightforward way to show this.
x^a/x^b = x(a - b)
Right?
So....if a = b, then you have:
x^a/x^a = 1 = x^(a - a) = x^0
The first part of that last step is like saying 2/2 = 1, or 5/5 = 1, or z/z = 1
Therefore: x^0 = 1
Make sense?
:)
2006-06-14 03:53:34
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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ANY number to the power of 0 equals 1.
ex. 10^2= a 1 with 2 zeros after it
10^3= a 1 with 3 zeros after it
10^1= a 1 with 1 zero after it
10^0= a 1 with 0 zeros after it
2006-06-14 10:46:05
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answer #2
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answered by boricua82991 3
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x^1 =x that is given, then by default x^0 = x^1/x, which would be x/x which equals 1
2006-06-14 10:36:14
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answer #3
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answered by John S 2
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example..x^0= x^(a-a) = x^a/ x^a =1
2006-06-14 11:06:01
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answer #4
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answered by Vivek 4
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x^0 = 1
this is the same as saying
(x^n)/(x^n) = x^(n - n) = x^0
as you can see, since there are 2 identical values on top and bottom, you get 1.
For ex:
x = 2 and n = 3
(x^n)/(x^n)
(2^3)/(2^3)
8/8
1
Also in case you didn't know, when you have exponents with like coefficents, and you are dividing them, all you do is take the exponents and subtract them like i have done above.
2006-06-14 14:30:17
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answer #5
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answered by Sherman81 6
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joe_ska,your proof looks good but I believe there is an error in it as multiplying by 0 is not an equivalent operation.
2006-06-14 13:37:54
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answer #6
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answered by FantaFumi 2
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Take 'log' on both sides.
logx^0 = log1
as 0=0
so proved. (just for fun)
2006-06-14 10:39:42
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answer #7
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answered by sammy 3
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suppose ln(x) = y
then:
0*ln(x) = 0*y
ln(x^0) = 0
exp(ln(x^0)) = exp(0)
and finally
x^0 = 1
Maybe?
2006-06-14 13:05:40
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answer #8
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answered by joe_ska 3
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Grab any scientfic calculator and you can find the answer But that probably isn't what you want to know.
2006-06-14 10:55:07
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answer #9
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answered by coreyjune12 2
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x=x^1
1/x=x^-1
x(1/x)=(x^1)*(x(^-1)=x^(1-1)=x^0=x/x=1
2006-06-14 10:48:24
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answer #10
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answered by Edward 7
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