Given they were both goal-bound free kicks, deflected by defenders, can someone explain why Beckham's effort was judged an own goal, while Villa's was credited to him?
What am I missing?
2006-06-14 02:24:43 · 4 answers · asked by Up your Maslow 4 in Sports ➔ Football ➔ FIFA World Cup (TM)
UHMMMMMMMMMMMMMMMMM....I'm drawing a blank. Sorry, I didn't see it.
2006-06-14 02:29:04 · answer #1 · answered by bay 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
An own goal is judged as such when the original striker of the ball's effort was in no way shape or form heading into the net, but then the defender accidentally deflects it into the net.
The reason why Gamorra (paraguay play) was an own goal was because Beckham's shot was a cross aimed at the middle of the penalty area, it was unlikely it would head into the net without any interferrence.
Villa's free kick was heading for the net, the deflection from the wall merely changed where it ended in the net, if the deflection had not occured it was highly likely the shot would have been on target and maybe even end up in the back of the net.
2006-06-14 09:30:29 · answer #2 · answered by Ajescent 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
NOTING. THE HEARDER YOU TRY TO UNDERSTAND FOOTBOLL .THE HADER IT GETS.
GO WITH THE FLOW-FLOW WITH THE RYTHEM.
ENJOY IT WHILE YOU CAN AND DONT ASK QUESTIONS..............................
2006-06-14 09:34:37 · answer #3 · answered by hailmartha212 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
See here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Own_goal
funny i had JUST read this when i noticed your question.
2006-06-14 09:30:28 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋