50%. Each flip is an independent event with no reliance on any previous flips.
2006-06-13 17:30:19
·
answer #1
·
answered by Anonymous
·
6⤊
2⤋
1:2, fifty fifty, 1/2, 50%, how ever you want it said or put. The chances are as good as any that it could land on tails this time as heads, and since there are only two sides of a coin it would be (any listed above...). Just a coincidence that the first 99 times were all heads...
2006-06-13 18:00:39
·
answer #2
·
answered by ditzychik508 5
·
0⤊
0⤋
I'd say about zero. If it lands on heads 99 times in a row then statistically you are flipping a two-headed coin
2006-06-13 17:30:42
·
answer #3
·
answered by der_grosse_e 6
·
0⤊
0⤋
odds are 50/50 ! how many times it is flipped previously does not change the odds of a single flip. the history of a single persons record of heads vs. tails against anothers record with the same amount of flips would lead credence to one flipper to get heads over another but without added varibles the odds do not change in the one flip heads or tails category.
2006-06-13 19:25:11
·
answer #4
·
answered by sandwichbill 1
·
0⤊
0⤋
1 in 100 times
2006-06-13 17:33:15
·
answer #5
·
answered by mandibeth18 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
Teachnically 50%, but there is a chance considering this event of 99% heads, maybe a 1% or 1/99 chance tails, or that is just a trick quarter, nickel, dime, etc
2006-06-13 17:32:14
·
answer #6
·
answered by ? 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
It is 50% that it will land on tails or heads in that spin. The odds of 100 tails in a row is very slim however.
2006-06-13 17:32:02
·
answer #7
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
3:1
2006-06-13 17:31:23
·
answer #8
·
answered by ☼Jims Brain☼ 6
·
0⤊
0⤋
1 in 2.
A coin flip is independent of whatever results happened before.
2006-06-13 17:30:31
·
answer #9
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
if you flip a coin 99 times and every single one is heads, you obviously have a double sided coin.
2006-06-13 17:31:26
·
answer #10
·
answered by mr_torjak 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
50/50
2006-06-13 17:32:57
·
answer #11
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋