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2006-06-13 17:20:50 · 8 answers · asked by Chemical Coltraine 2 in Science & Mathematics Physics

8 answers

All bodies possess magnetic properties. But the degrees to which they possess these properties differ from each other.

The degree is determined by the following two facts:

1.) The forces and the torques that a magnetic field exerts on these bodies.

2.) The distortion that a body produces in a magnetic field, when it is placed in that field.

Depending upon the above properties, materials are divided into three categories; para, dia and ferro magnetic materials.

The permeability of para magnetic substances is greater than unity; the permeability of dia magnetic substances is less than unity. The permeability of ferro magnetic substance is much greater than unity.

Para and dia magnetic substances do not distort the magnetic field (second test).
Their properties are measured only by the force experienced by them when they are placed in a magnetic field. (First test and also answer to your question)

Ferro magnetic substances like iron distort heavily the magnetic field; experience greater force; most importantly they experience torque. Therefore their properties are measured by the torque experienced by them.

Because of our familiarity with the property of ferro magnetic substances, we have a doubt whether other substances do have magnetic properties.

But in reality all substances do have magnetic properties.

The magnetic properties are due to the circulating electrons around the nucleus; this equivalent to a current and hence they produce a magnetic dipole. The resultant of the dipole moments differs from substance to substance.

2006-06-13 18:27:54 · answer #1 · answered by Pearlsawme 7 · 1 0

You pose the question in a strange way, so it's somewhat difficult to answer.

We observe magnetic force fields around objects that are magnetticly charged, specificly, they have a positive, and a negative magnetic pole, like a bar magnet, or our own planet. Magnetic monopoles have never been observed.

Now, only very special materials can exhibit these properties. Normally, this is caused when the constituent molecules in the materials exhibit what are called "dipole moments". If nearly all the molecules are aligned in a particular way, the object will tend to exhibit a magnetic field, a good example would be a loadstone, or a magneticly charged iron rod.

These properties arise from electricity, and in fact, magnetism and electricity are really one and the same thing. All atoms as we know them have electricly charged particles, electrons and protons, and so have electrical (and thus magnetic) properties, but typiclly, they either do not develop dipole moments, or they do not have the proper crystalline structure and alingment for these effects to be observed macroscopicly.

Note that water has very strong dipole moments, but because they do not align, water never has a magnetic field.

*edit* for an above poster, magnetism is in no way a poorly understood or "infant" science, its causes and behaviors have been well known and stringently mathematicly defined for nearly a century. The only real remaining theoretical problem in this field would be that of the magnetic monopole (specificly, why does it not exhist?)

2006-06-13 17:29:24 · answer #2 · answered by Argon 3 · 0 0

Difficult question because no one is entirely certain what magnetic force is. I would surmise that all matter has some form of magnetic force within it, but it is mostly too small to adequately measure. Magnetics are still a rather infant science.

2006-06-13 17:26:35 · answer #3 · answered by kyrant 2 · 0 0

Indeed many as even spin of electron outside the nucleus does produce magnetic force....but there may be few exceptional where all the spin magnetic force cancel each other at some point or at everywhere or it's inside.........Bye

2006-06-13 17:28:45 · answer #4 · answered by nothing special 3 · 0 0

Atoms... proton, neutrons, electrons. Ringing a bell right?

Now go ahead and remind me of the charge on a neutron.

The answer is no.

Oh and reply to the first poster... all matter has a gravitational force. I think that's what you were thinking.

2006-06-13 17:25:40 · answer #5 · answered by Henry L 4 · 0 0

yes... if you place a ping pong ball next to a basketball over time (a long time) the ping pong ball will move closer to the basketball... not all objects at rest will remain at rest! Gravity is always a factor!

2006-06-13 17:31:51 · answer #6 · answered by Jimmie 2 · 0 0

i agree wid jimmie...gud going friend..nice answer

2006-06-13 17:48:00 · answer #7 · answered by msknowall 2 · 0 0

no

2006-06-13 17:23:19 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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