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Can you support your answer?

2006-06-13 14:02:47 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

7 answers

No,
for f(x)=(x+5)/(x-9), you substitute 1 for x, then solve for f(x) to obtain the y-value at x=1. So:

f(1)=((1)+5)/((1)-9)= -6/8

which shows that at x=1, y= -6/8 = f(1)

The point (1, -5/9) is not on the graph.

2006-06-13 14:07:19 · answer #1 · answered by refdxf 2 · 2 0

no, it is not.

if you plug in 1 for x (from the coordinates you are given)

(1+5)/(1-9) = 6 / -8 which is not the output of -5/9

Therefore, you can conclude that the point (1, -5/9) is not part of the graph of f(x)=(x+5) / (x-9)

2006-06-13 21:08:03 · answer #2 · answered by Steven B 6 · 0 0

No it isn't.

If you replace x with 1, you do not get -5/9 for the function value.
However, when you replace x with 0, you do get -5/9.

So, (1, -5/9) is not on the graph, but (0, -5/9) is.

2006-06-13 21:07:24 · answer #3 · answered by s_h_mc 4 · 0 0

does f(x) = y?

If so, the answer is no.

See, 1+5 equals 6, and 1-9 equals -8. 6/-8 definitely does not equals -5/9.

2006-06-13 21:05:46 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

f(x)=y
y=(x+5)/(x-9)
-5/9=(1+5)/(1-9)
-5/9=6/-8, or -6/8
-5/9 does not equal -6/8, so (1, -5/9) is not a point on that line.

2006-06-13 21:26:43 · answer #5 · answered by Janet A 2 · 0 0

no the point 1, -3/4 is because in this case you do the addition and subtractions first

2006-06-13 21:06:22 · answer #6 · answered by duke4me2 3 · 0 0

the people above me had it right. it's no.

is it just me, or are you having us do your math homework?

2006-06-13 21:09:26 · answer #7 · answered by polythene ruth 2 · 0 0

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