No,
for f(x)=(x+5)/(x-9), you substitute 1 for x, then solve for f(x) to obtain the y-value at x=1. So:
f(1)=((1)+5)/((1)-9)= -6/8
which shows that at x=1, y= -6/8 = f(1)
The point (1, -5/9) is not on the graph.
2006-06-13 14:07:19
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answer #1
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answered by refdxf 2
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no, it is not.
if you plug in 1 for x (from the coordinates you are given)
(1+5)/(1-9) = 6 / -8 which is not the output of -5/9
Therefore, you can conclude that the point (1, -5/9) is not part of the graph of f(x)=(x+5) / (x-9)
2006-06-13 21:08:03
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answer #2
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answered by Steven B 6
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No it isn't.
If you replace x with 1, you do not get -5/9 for the function value.
However, when you replace x with 0, you do get -5/9.
So, (1, -5/9) is not on the graph, but (0, -5/9) is.
2006-06-13 21:07:24
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answer #3
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answered by s_h_mc 4
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does f(x) = y?
If so, the answer is no.
See, 1+5 equals 6, and 1-9 equals -8. 6/-8 definitely does not equals -5/9.
2006-06-13 21:05:46
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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f(x)=y
y=(x+5)/(x-9)
-5/9=(1+5)/(1-9)
-5/9=6/-8, or -6/8
-5/9 does not equal -6/8, so (1, -5/9) is not a point on that line.
2006-06-13 21:26:43
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answer #5
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answered by Janet A 2
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no the point 1, -3/4 is because in this case you do the addition and subtractions first
2006-06-13 21:06:22
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answer #6
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answered by duke4me2 3
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the people above me had it right. it's no.
is it just me, or are you having us do your math homework?
2006-06-13 21:09:26
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answer #7
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answered by polythene ruth 2
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