If A=B, and B=C, then is it true that A will always equal C?

Question

LOL....keeping in mind that this is always dependent on the environment used! In Mathematics....this is NOT always true ;c)

Answer 1

In this case A, B, and C are all equal. And yes, A will always equal C.

Answer 2

This is called the Transitive property of equality. So yes, assuming you are using the = sign in the normal way.

However, sometimes the = sign has other meanings:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Equality_(mathematics)
For example, the statement T(n) = O(n squared) means that T(n) grows at the order of n squared. It is not an equality, because the sign "=" in the statement means something different from equality.

Answer 3

yes, because if A = 1, then you are saying 1=B B=C. 1 can only equal 1, so 1=1 and 1=C. 1 can only equal 1, so 1=1 and 1=1, so in this case, A, B, and C are all the same.

Answer 4

Look up Order Axioms! It should always be A=C if B=C & A=B. When one of them is zero, we really can't write 0 = 0 as it is undefined (0/0 is undefined). Like if we write 0 = 0, fallacies crop up. Go through the following example & it will be clear :
Let 'x' be any variable.
So, x^2 - x^2 = x^2 - x^2
(Hope you know that the symbol ^ stands for 'to the power of'; you know the meaning, I guess!)
or, x(x - x) = (x - x)(x + x)
By cancellation property,
x = (x + x)
If x = 1, then 1 = 2 ?!?!?!

Answer 5

yes it will like 1=1 1=1

Answer 6

Yes A will ALWAYS equal C when the above equations are used.

Larry D

Answer 7

According to your mathematical definition, yes.

Answer 8

Yes they do to the Transitivity Rule if you doing economics

Answer 9

Ask Pythagoras

Answer 10

Always