Or are they time-zoned (which is a man-made state of being)?
I. E. if it's high tide in Estoril, Portugal, Is it also high tide in Santa Barbara, California?
2006-06-13 06:33:53 · 6 answers · asked by Di 3 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Earth Sciences & Geology
There is only so much water in the oceans, so if it's high tide on one side of the earth, then the water is being pulled over that way, draining some of the water on the opposite side of the earth. Therefore, when it's high tide on one side, it's low tide elsewhere.
(That is not a scientific explanation exactly.) For a visual... get a large shallow bowl... fill it with water. Carefully move it so all of the water moves towards one edge. As the water increases on that side, the water decreases on the other. That is similar to how the tides move.
2006-06-13 06:38:22 · answer #1 · answered by 1000cranes 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Tides are caused by water (oceans, seas etc.) reacting to the gravitational pull of the moon.
This means that the highest tide will be wherever the moon is closest and lowest tide will be directly on the opposite side of the earth.
2006-06-13 13:37:45 · answer #2 · answered by bw_dubya 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, they reach high and low tides at different spots on the world, depending on where the moon is in relation to the spot on the earth.
2006-06-13 13:36:12 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
no, tides are controlled by the moon and sun ( Gravitational pull )
it is never the same time all over
2006-06-13 13:38:25 · answer #4 · answered by antho2820 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, not at the same time.
2006-06-13 13:39:08 · answer #5 · answered by ag_iitkgp 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no, they are different. depends on how far away from the moon the place is.
2006-06-13 13:36:37 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋