2006-06-13 05:01:24 · 21 answers · asked by E 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Legally yes it can and has happened. The imfamous urban legend of Biker chicks knocking a guy down and having thier way with him in a park is an example.
The reality is that it's hard to have unwilling sex with a guy by deffinition. Guys like sex. If they are not in a relationship they have little incentive to avoid sex, even bad sex.
A guy weak enough to be "raped" would be a laughing stock. The most likely scenario would be a date rape drug and the guy contracts an STD from it's usage. Especially a married or engaged man. However it would be extremely hard for the guy to prove his unwillingness and it would take a mountain of evidence to prove such.
2006-06-13 05:09:40 · answer #1 · answered by draciron 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Rape is really a word for Man. even though there is law for it. I strongly think Woman can never rape a man!! because the consequence is nothing.... Man will not get pregnant, woman will, so what is that rape for!??
Just self esteem.... Maybe morally it is no good. But I think when it comes to sex, 90% is two way thing especially from a woman to a man!
2006-06-13 05:05:41 · answer #2 · answered by YourDreamDoc 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Of course. There is definitely such a thing as unwanted sexual intercourse for a man. Also, under the law of aiding and abetting, more than one person of any gender could rape a man by helping the woman engage in nonconsensual intercourse with a male victim. Finally, since the possibility of pregnancy is not an element of rape, I would also include anal penetration by a penis or inanimate object in the definition of rape. Anyone can commit rape.
2006-06-13 05:28:36 · answer #3 · answered by Michael B 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, but if they are good looking they make headlines and make the victim feel weird cause so many guys would love to get "raped" by her.
But seriously, he is injured the same as a woman is, spiritually, physically, emotionally, sexually, psychologically, future relationships are then extremely difficult, etc.
Some sufferers of rape suffer doubly, and men who are raped may fall into this category more than women, but women do. If your body responds biologically to stimulation while your being raped, or molested, you have to deal with your body's betrayal too. It is hard to overcome that it was just a biological response not desire. Fear increases blood flow, and oxygen.
2006-06-13 05:31:03 · answer #4 · answered by jondulea 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In the eyes of the law yes.
however you cant rape the willing, and if a male is erect its because he is aroused and he wants it. So in that sense its not rape.
2006-06-13 05:08:14 · answer #5 · answered by "EL SANCHO" 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Rape is rape...works both ways under the law...
2006-06-13 05:09:03 · answer #6 · answered by Patagoniakidd 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, a woman can not be charged with rape because she can not be charged with rape because she can not physically penetrate a man, however she can be charged with sexual assault, aggravated sexual assault, assault and battery, and a wild host of other charges but a woman can not be charged with rape.
2006-06-17 07:28:46 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes, physical response is not consent....a number of rapes go unreported by women, for varying reasons....i imagine men would be even less likely to report.
2006-06-13 05:17:13 · answer #8 · answered by JenniT 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i think that in the eyes of the law no but it can be that she did but they will not convict a woman of it
2006-06-13 05:05:21 · answer #9 · answered by mkh 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
YES THERE SHOULD BE A FAIR EQUAL CHARGE AS IF A MAN RAPED A GIRL.
2006-06-13 05:05:41 · answer #10 · answered by J M 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋