can we prove that 1 = 2 using equations?

Answer 1

You can if you violate rules of math, such as dividing by zero.

Answer 2

No.

1+1=2

Answer 3

Yes, although there is a fallacy in the proof.

Start with a = 1, b = 1. Therefore:
a = b
Multiply both sides by a:
a^2 = a * b
Subtract b^2 from both sides:
a^2 - b^2 = a * b - b^2
Now, factor both sides, using the difference of squares on one side:
(a + b) * (a - b) = b * (a - b)
Now, divide by (a - b) on both sides:
a + b = a
Plug the numbers back in:
1 + 1 = 1
2 = 1

However, the problem comes when you divide by a - b. Because a = b, dividing by a - b is the same as dividing by zero, which is not possible.

The thing to remember about using variables when proving something is that you always need to keep in mind what those variables represent, so you don't do the impossible.

Answer 4

One could no doubt conceive of a set of rules that would allow you to write 1 = 2 but if we require those rules to provide a logical, consistent framework for counting then such rules would not be useful since different symbols (the "1" and the '2") could be used for the same number of things since 1 = 2 implies that 1 and 2 are the same thing. That would be pretty confusing.
So people devised a set of rules that avoid this confusion and have the advantage of being logical and consistent also. That set of rules is called mathematics. Accordingly, different symbols ("1","2","3" etc.) reqpresent different things (number of bananas, cars, houses etc). Therefore, using the rules of mathematics you cannot write such an equation and claim it is correct. If you do, your rules are not mathematics.

Answer 5

Yes and no....

You can come to that conclusion in an equation using legal steps...

Such as:

3x + 1 = 3x + 2

Subtracting 3x from both sides gives us:

1 = 2

However, while this was totally legal, this statement just provides that there is no value of x that will make 3x + 1 be equal to 3x + 2.

So...take your pick...its all in the definition of the number :)

Answer 6

1=1*1 , 2=2*1 [divide by 1]
1=1 ,2=1
therefore 1=2

Answer 7

There is a trick set of equations that relies upon dividing by zero in one of the steps to come to the end result that 1=2... I've seen it from time to time floating around, can't reproduce it off of the top of my head this morning...

Answer 8

if 2=1 then 1=2 maybe?

Answer 9

look whenever u get like 1=2 or 2=3 then u must have forgotton extraneous root
extraneous root is additional root u grt it mostly in quadratic
but still if u want ans like 1=2 then 3x+1=3x+2
is better example

Answer 10

buy one get 2 free? or you get 2 for the price of 1?

Answer 11

No, not possible. 1 and 2 are two completely different values according to math. Without breaking certain mathematical laws, it is not possible.