The play occurred in the 2nd half. An Italian player was heading to the goal, just outside the penalty area he was tripped by a player from Ghana. He was heading to the goal only the goalie in front of him.
2006-06-13 03:27:56 · 7 answers · asked by Jim H 1 in Sports ➔ Football ➔ FIFA World Cup (TM)
Very simple explanation.
The Italian that received the ball was deemed offside before he took the ball raced towards goal, only to be upended.
So the offside happened BEFORE the next infringement, as such, the offside is taken as the first infringement of the rules.
If there was no offside, the Ghanaian player, would have an early shower.
2006-06-13 03:43:24 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
I did not see that game, so I can't comment on it, but I can say that even though there are clear guidelines in soccer, it all boils down to one thing...it depends on what the referee saw.
Just because the cameras show one thing, that does not mean that the referee saw the same thing.
Also, the referee might not have thought that a one-on-one with the keeper was an "obvious goal scoring opportunity." Were there other defenders coming in to defend, was the player headed directly for the goal, or toward the corner flag or end line? There is a LOT that goes into the decision and the referee has all of about a half a second to make the decision.
Was a foul called at all? If not, the referee may have thought the striker was simulating a foul. Again, it all boils down to what the referee saw from his angle on the play.
2006-06-13 03:35:50 · answer #2 · answered by Meralee 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Oh dear me. The reason he wasn't given a red card is because the Attcker was given offside just before the "tackle" was commited. So a foul couldn't be given. However with all the rule changes that happen on an almost daily basis something should be done to ensure such offences are punishable.
2006-06-13 03:40:45 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
because the referees dont know what they are doing it was an obvious foul and they didnt even card it but i think they are trying to be equal with all their calls and not give to many red cards because all it does is make people angry.
I hope that helps ;)
2006-06-13 03:32:59 · answer #4 · answered by cougarsrule09 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because the referee was a Coward,or has bad vision ,it has nothing to do with the rules of the game.
2006-06-13 03:44:22 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because this cup have a very poor arbitrage
2006-06-13 03:32:07 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
because the arbitrator was d-ck!!!i saw it and seriously thought about buying him glasses!hello!he would have scored!!!
2006-06-13 03:31:51 · answer #7 · answered by marikuska 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋