whn did slander become a crime?

Answer 1

Slander/libel are part of British common law and have been part of the available torts sicne well before the United States was even colonized. There is no precise date, because in Britain there were not written laws for most things, just a set of precedents. It goes back at least to the 1200s.

Answer 2

In most jurisdictions, slander is a tort. Actually, it's an subspecies of the tort of defamation: generally requiring a false statement, of/concerning the plaintiff, that is published, causing harm (reputation/financial/emotional) to the plaintiff.

The difference between a tort and a crime is that a tort is punished by the victim, in civil court, while a crime is punished by the government in criminal court.

Torts are generally defined by the common law, that is to say the courts. Crimes are generally defined (nowadays in most countries) by statutes (legislatively enacted).

Now, it's possible that somewhere, in all the states and provinces and countries passing laws across the world, some legislature out there made it criminal. But to answer your question, you'd need to identify what jurisdiction (state/province/country/etc.) you were talking about. Then it's a simple matter of looking up the statute and finding when it was enacted.

Answer 3

When did lying become immoral?

Answer 4

where have you been living under a rock or something? why are you currently on trial for it