A short mathematical explanation:
Assume you have two negative numbers u,v. Then there exists two numbers positive number a and b such that u=-a and v=-b. Therefore v+b=0, and u(v+b)=0.
By the distributive law:
u(v+b)=uv+ub=uv+(-a)b=uv-ab=0. Thus uv=ab, and the product of two negative numbers is the product of two positive numbers.
Why does this make sense in the real world?
Assume that you owe 5 people 5 dollars. We can consider owing to be a negative number of having, so you have -5 dollars for 5 people or -25 dollars total.
But if it was only 4 people, you would only have -20 dollars, for 3 it would be -15, for 2 it would be -10, for 1 it would be -5 and for 0 it would be 0. So, each time you remove a person, you add 5 dollars. When you have -1 people that you have -5 dollars for (you can also say you have -1 people that you owe 5 dollars to, or there is 1 person that owes you five dollars) you continue to add 5 dollars. Now you have -1*-5=5, so two negatives multiplied together to make a positive.
2006-06-13 04:15:05
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answer #1
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answered by Eulercrosser 4
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If one thinks of multiplication as grouping, then we have made a positive group by taking away a negative number twelve times.
A Mathematical Explanation
If we can agree that a negative number is just a positive number multiplied by -1, then we can always write the product of two negative numbers this way:
(-a)(-b) = (-1)(a)(-1)(b) = (-1)(-1)ab
For example,
-2 * -3 = (-1)(2)(-1)(3)
= (-1)(-1)(2)(3)
= (-1)(-1) * 6
So the real question is,
(-1)(-1) = ?
and the answer is that the following convention has been adopted:
(-1)(-1) = +1
This convention has been adopted for the simple reason that any other convention would cause something to break.
For example, if we adopted the convention that (-1)(-1) = -1, the distributive property of multiplication wouldn't work for negative numbers:
(-1)(1 + -1) = (-1)(1) + (-1)(-1)
(-1)(0) = -1 + -1
0 = -2
As Sherlock Holmes observed, "When you have excluded the impossible, whatever remains, however improbable, must be the truth."
Since everything except +1 can be excluded as impossible, it follows that, however improbable it seems, (-1)(-1) = +1.
2006-06-13 00:09:27
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answer #2
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answered by rikki71685 1
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In mathematics, it is a rule (I think) that when a number is to be subracted to a negative number, the negative number becomes positive, because two negatives make a positive. It's also like having double negatives in English. If the two are used consecutively, or within a sentence, the two would cancel each other out and become a positive.
2006-06-13 01:46:37
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answer #3
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answered by JM 2
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Well i guess a simple example is better because this question is a about logic. Let say we have 1 man and 1 woman, A and B, and they own each other money.
Let say A owns B 24 dollars, and B owns A 12 dollars.
To A,
Debt of A to B = -24 , Debt of B to A = -12
Total debt = Debt of A to B - Debt of B to A
= -24 - (-12)
But the logic is i own her 24 and she own me 12, so after discounting those she own me, i still own her 12.
Therefore, Total debt = -24 - (-12) = -24 + 12 = -12
Thus came the rule which is just logic.
2006-06-13 02:31:22
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answer #4
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answered by Alex M 2
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let's say -2 times -3. the first number is being added the second number of times in multiplication. so adding NEGATIVE 2 NEGATIVE 3 TIMES, you would get 6. Because 2 +2+2= 6 But it is negative and negative so they cancel each other out to be positive.
2006-06-12 23:57:06
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answer #5
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answered by rebel.angels 2
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I'll explain :
Take 1 minus and put it horizontally, take another minus and put it vertically, now overlap both of them, the result is ++++
2006-06-12 23:55:42
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answer #6
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answered by sandy 4
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