How can it be rape if she enjoy it too?
2006-06-11 14:05:28 · 38 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
consent is required in order for it not to be rape. If u can determine that at first she did not consent but later in the act she consented by virtue of enjoying it then it's not rape. However a person's reaction to rape is not necessarily an indication that the person is consenting, once it is clear form the person's action that they are not consenting then it's rape. The person need not say no once it clear from their action that they are not consenting,
Those principles only apply when the person being involved in the sexual act is an adult of course if it's a minor then consent is not a requirement as you can be charged with statutory rape.
2006-06-11 14:23:08 · answer #1 · answered by wizekid 2 · 13⤊ 4⤋
A woman does not necessarily enjoy intercourse just because she has an orgasm. Orgasm can be a purely physical thing. If a woman says no, then it is rape, regardless. I certainly hope you are only asking this as a hypothetical question.
2006-06-11 14:11:28 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is stupid. RAPE is the operative word, genius. Rape is illegal and if you commit rape then you need to spend some time in prison getting some of that treatment yourself. I don't care how many excuses you dream up, it's all the same. If you rape, then go to jail and rot. Now get off the computer and go get yourself some help.
2006-06-11 14:16:42 · answer #3 · answered by thewildeman2 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Good question ... on purely legal ground, yeah I'm afraid it's still rape. But take the letter of the law out of the equation and you might have a point that it's not rape.
2006-06-12 18:44:52 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
You confuse the physical phenomenon of an orgasm with consent to engage in intercourse. If you penetrate a woman without her consent, it is rape. Even if she later has an orgasm. Even if she later explicitly consents. So, yes, it is still considered rape.
2006-06-11 14:09:31 · answer #5 · answered by Loss Leader 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Absolutely, it is still rape. No means no. It is not whether she physically responds to stimulation. Orgasm can be involuntary.
This is a dangerous myth that says that women who are raped secretly enjoy it. This is wrong. It is an excuse for a horrible and terrible act of violence.
Rape is about violence!
2006-06-11 14:10:43 · answer #6 · answered by optionseeker1989 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Anyone that rapes a woman should be traumatized like she was. I really doubt a rape victim has an orgasm. That is something the rapist may try to say but is highly unlikely.
2006-06-11 14:17:26 · answer #7 · answered by hardnose 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Yes, it is still rape. You can't possibly know if she orgasms or not, and it is irrelevant in any case. The rape is the action without consent and anything else is inconsequential.
2006-06-11 14:09:14 · answer #8 · answered by PuterPrsn 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
believe me, if a woman is being raped, an orgasm is the last thing on her mind. What a stupid question. You must be a man.
2006-06-11 14:08:39 · answer #9 · answered by Stacy R 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes its still considered Rape. If a guy gets raped, and yes it has happened before, and he has an erection is that still rape...yes. Rape is rape no matter how you want to justify it it is still rape.
2006-06-11 15:54:01 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No one else seemed to mention this, but apparently this does happen. It is just a physiological response to what is happening. It also makes them feel very guilty when it happens. It has nothing to do with being turned on or wanting it. Of course it is still rape.
2006-06-11 20:49:32 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋