2006-06-11 07:58:15 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
No...it will be 100% more than glass A....double the amount.
2006-06-11 08:01:35 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Only if Glass B is 25% smaller than Glass A. If they're the same size, a full Glass B would have to be 100% more than Glass A.
Let's say that a full glass = 100 units. Glass A, which is 50% full, would only have 50 units. Glass B has 50% more than Glass A, which can be represented by the following, with 0.50 being 50%:
50 + 0.50 (50) = 75
For the percentage of full Glass B, you'd have to solve for x in the following equation, with x being the percentage as it relates to the 50% full Glass A:
50 + x (50) = 100
50 + 50x = 100
50x = 50
x = 1Â Â Â Â (and 1 = 100%)
2006-06-11 19:26:58 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
no.
assuming that the glasses are of equal capacity, therefore a full glass b would be 100 % more than glass a as glass a is 50%, 1/2) of 100%.
50% more than glass a is 75 %
2006-06-11 15:33:32 · answer #3 · answered by D G 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, 50% more would only amount to a glass 75% full. Glass B is double, or 100% more.
2006-06-11 15:02:46 · answer #4 · answered by Pangolin 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Glass B is twice as full as A. So it is 100% more full than A.
2006-06-11 15:01:49 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Provided both glasses are the same capacity, glass B will have 100 per cent more in it than glass A.
2006-06-11 15:17:31 · answer #6 · answered by thomasrobinsonantonio 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That depends on how big glass B is compared to glass A. You don't specifically state that the glasses are the same size.
2006-06-11 15:15:02 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
no glass B is only 75% full
2006-06-11 15:13:17 · answer #8 · answered by pinkii 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That's assuming the two glasses are equal size.
2006-06-11 15:16:14 · answer #9 · answered by Aimers 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No; it's 100% more.
2006-06-11 15:02:49 · answer #10 · answered by blahb31 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋