The closer some thing gets, the measured distance obviously gets smaller and smaller... until the measured distance is infinately small. If infinity never ends, how can something ever touch? If it does eventually touch, then haven't we broken the laws of infinity?
2006-06-11 04:41:39 · 11 answers · asked by liquid_ice_71 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
Very good question. When you get to the nano level you do not actually talk of objects touching one another, but rather interacting with one another. When two atoms get very close to one another the the electrons repel one another strongly as predicted by Coulomb's Law ( F=k(q1*q2)/r^2). This law also shows why this is only important a close range with atoms. This is because at distance fairly far away the atom is viewed as an electrically neutral particle be cause the protons counter act the electrons. At close distances however the electrons get much closer to one another than the protons do and so that r value is relatively much smaller for the electrons so the force repelling is great. The name given this particular phenomenon is Van Der Waal Forces.
This same types logic is followed even into the subatomic world.
Oh, I missed the real question. You are talking math not physics. Algebra can not effectively deal with infinite. To deal effectively with infinity it is best to deal with calculus where they get around the subject by saying the limit x approaches infinite, or the limit as x approaches zero. Now it is best to realize that while math is a great tool for describing reality it is a man made invention that reality does not need in order to exist. Due to the above answer I have explained that in the real world objects do not actually touch. There are however mathematics available that get around your problem. One area of math is called infinite series usually studied in Calculus II. Note: my only real interest in math is to solve physical problems, so a true math person would probably be able to give you a better answer on the math end of the question.
2006-06-11 04:58:42 · answer #1 · answered by drmanjo2010 3 · 5⤊ 1⤋
Before finding whether two things touch each other, let us see how do we measure length. When the two things are separated how will you measure the distance ?
If you use a scale, first thing is we have to make the zero of the scale to coincide with one object. But we can't touch the object as per your hypthesis.
Read Alexander's answer.
2006-06-11 13:14:18 · answer #2 · answered by Pearlsawme 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The simplest answer I can give would involve atomic radii being in the region of 1 Angstrom = 0.1 nanometre.
If their is no space left for air molecules between the objects, they are clearly touching. Hoverver thermal motion means that the molecules in question are not stationary, so contact would occur before the average gap reached zero.
Surface irregularities also would be like mountains and valleys in atomic terms, so contact would occur before the entire surface contacted.
Beyond molecules and atoms one could consider the deformation of electron clouds surrounding the atoms which would repel each other. I guess "contact" could practically be considered the instant where the most protruberant electron cloud on one object started to impinge on the first electron cloud of an atom of the second object.
Given that thermal motion moves the atoms in question, you might want to consider what percentage of the time the atoms in question interfered with each other before you consider contact to have been made.
Take your pick!
2006-06-11 12:03:28 · answer #3 · answered by x 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
When something touches, they are still a very small distance away. Something can never literally touch in room temperatures. The sense of touching is when your body and the thing you're touching have a electromagnetic interaction. But you never actually get to touch the particles.
2006-06-11 12:26:51 · answer #4 · answered by Science_Guy 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
that shows that you just realised and discovered that nothing is infinite.. congratulations! infinity mostly is defined by a number or digit.. eg. 1>x>0, and numbers can't explain everything in this world.. that law is just a formula to help discover and understand easier... well at least that's what i think..
2006-06-11 11:53:33 · answer #5 · answered by nucleus 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I dont things touch but the magnectic flux of both objects bouce
2006-06-11 11:58:04 · answer #6 · answered by Ben 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The question is flawed. Distence is an intiger or fraction greater than 0. if something is touching, it has no distence.
2006-06-11 11:51:05 · answer #7 · answered by Alexander W 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Two objects never actually touch, if they did they would fuse together
2006-06-11 11:44:14 · answer #8 · answered by Iron Rider 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hmm, good question....I hope some smarty pants can answer this.
2006-06-11 11:44:22 · answer #9 · answered by dulcetpurr 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
almost touching ur body
2006-06-11 11:43:21 · answer #10 · answered by Emily H 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋