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but if the particles are not moving then they do not exist. what is the proof of this universally accepted statement and can anyone proove it wrong?

2006-06-08 22:01:46 · 11 answers · asked by ankitd 3 in Science & Mathematics Physics

alright if everyone is trying to proove me wrong then what proof do you have that the ununiverse never started with it's length 0?

2006-06-08 22:20:22 · update #1

11 answers

>>>>according to quantum theory if particles are not moving
>>>>then they do not exist.

Nooo, nothing in quantum theory says that, that I am aware of.

The Uncertainty Principle states that a particle that isn't moving has an infinitely uncertain location (ie it could exist anywhere in the universe) but it doesn't cease to exist.


>>>>alright if everyone is trying to proove me wrong then what
>>>>proof do you have that the ununiverse never started with it's
>>>> length 0?

Huh? The universe has had infinite length ever since it started. That is what “Universe” means. It means “al things” That means that it contains everything in all dimensions. That includes length.

It is oxymoronic to speak of a universe with less than infinite length. That is all that is needed to prove that the universe started with a non-zero length. If whatever you are referring to has less than infinite length it is, by definition, not the universe.

2006-06-08 22:17:11 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Actually, quantum theory says that there is a basic vibrational state or zero point stage which will be the lowest vibrational state a particle can achieve. It is described by a bell curve with a single maximum.

This bell curve describes the probability of interaction with the particle depending on distance from its average centre of mass.

The situation describe above essentially is a non-moving particle with a fuzzy definition of surface. The lowest possible vibrational state is the unmoving mass, a non-vibration.

The absence of a particle would mean less energy. That's another way to say E = m c^2.

2006-06-08 23:51:32 · answer #2 · answered by jorganos 6 · 0 0

quantum theory is just predictive .
You make predictions .It's not like particles not moving do not exist.There's always a probability that a particle will be not moving but we can only predict and not make such assertions that not moving means doesn't exist.
What we can say that we cannot predict both position and momentum to an arbitrary degree of accuracy.
So as far as I see you should recheck the source of your information.If you could tell me where exactly you read it then may be I will benefit as well.

2006-06-08 22:14:24 · answer #3 · answered by santosh k 3 · 0 0

once you're effortless about it, declaring "isn't it stupid for him to assert that Allah did not create the universe?" is a procedures sillier than some thing HE has ever reported. OF course some imaginary bloke up contained in the sky did not create regardless of except interior the mind's eye of detailed human beings very few centuries in the past who had many times merely eaten some magic mushrooms or chewed on some plant fabric and then began to entice snap shots about all of it contained in the sand and it truly is been "prolonged upon" ever because by skill of many persons who really should be conscious of extra effectual this contemporary-day.. then you definately *****/go contact upon a reputable scientist with each and each and every of the facilities and information he has accessible to allow him to assert such issues........ positive. It speaks volumes....

2016-11-14 09:33:51 · answer #4 · answered by nader 4 · 0 0

Quantum theory does not say that if a particle is at rest it does not exist.

2006-06-08 22:06:06 · answer #5 · answered by Pearlsawme 7 · 0 0

I'm no expert in Quantum Physics, but I too, have never read that about a particle.

2006-06-09 02:02:06 · answer #6 · answered by googlywotsit 5 · 0 0

i dont know what quantom theory says about this but my simple logic is that since motion is relative nothing can be at absolute rest. ie a particle at absolute rest does not exist.

2006-06-09 00:39:52 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

what are you talking about? the only thing said is that if you now that there velocity is zero then they are everywhere nothing else

2006-06-08 22:20:10 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

can you prove e=mc2 is wrong

then i will prove the above said thing is wrong

2006-06-08 22:05:54 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

damm ,.... i have not moved from my seat since last 2 hrs. hurrah .. i still exist.

2006-06-08 22:04:27 · answer #10 · answered by Manish 2 · 0 0

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