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Here is the fully stated question which could not fit the "Enter your question" box.

Does it make sense to anyone else to divide the logic of thinking correctly into two categories (1)thinking by inductions from empirical data to data generalizations and (2)thinking by deductions from principles to particulars or premises to particular or universal conclusions.

2006-06-08 04:49:16 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

9 answers

From a purely logic point of view, there is nothing wrong with the conclusion of having two separate categories of logical reasoning. Often a problem will require the usage of both, but in the end they can be viewed as two completly separate thought processes.

2006-06-08 05:51:35 · answer #1 · answered by Nate 3 · 0 0

Logic is a sequence of facts progressed to achieve a certain objective. Selection of data is more important categorically as compared to induction from it.Generalization is against logic. Particulars are focused windows and conclusions are never logical,especially if arrived in different situation

2006-06-08 04:57:17 · answer #2 · answered by kalabalu 5 · 0 0

Western civilization and culture likes to divide things into categories. That's how it operates and has discovered knowledge etc. No, it does not make any sort of sense. It's just like trying to say some things are fruits and some vegetables. you make the definition, you fit everything in categories and usualy there's something in between that doesn't quite fit. like something between an animal and a plant or something between a man and a woman. You can use the knife to cut the world any way you want. this is one way you are being taught. you can accept it or reject it or something in between.

2006-06-08 04:54:04 · answer #3 · answered by BonesofaTeacher 7 · 0 0

It makes as much sense as anything else.

Think of it in terms of geometry.

Most logic equations resemble set subset theories. you can map them out if you like. Often these maps will suggest assumptions and prenumbral areas. Assuming you want to understand the whole picture you are going to reason exactly as you note. Use what you know for a certainty and hopefully deduce what you don't know.

If none of this makes sense, blame it on the Greeks. They started it.

2006-06-18 05:02:35 · answer #4 · answered by LORD Z 7 · 0 0

thinking logically is diff rent to most people you are generalizing correct thinking. you cant divide everything into two little categories

2006-06-08 05:02:23 · answer #5 · answered by denetta d 2 · 0 0

You mean is there only A Priori and A Posteriori knowledge, not if you're Immanuel Kant.

2006-06-15 07:32:38 · answer #6 · answered by parsonsknows 2 · 0 0

The grace of the words is the oneness of heart and mind.

2006-06-13 23:15:54 · answer #7 · answered by superrubrollers 3 · 0 0

Yes , it make sense!

2006-06-17 18:11:27 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Not if it's not logical.

2006-06-18 02:21:58 · answer #9 · answered by Keyofsee 1 · 0 0

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