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2006-06-08 03:16:25 · 4 answers · asked by rajesh bhowmick 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

it would be better to say my previous question"proof of sir fermats last theorem"

2006-06-08 03:25:36 · update #1

4 answers

The question now is not if we understand your proof. The question is, do u understand what u r doing actually?

I didn't see your proof of N=a^2-b^2 for any number, but I take it as u have done it correctly becos this is true and is, in fact, very obvious. N=a^2-b^2=(a+b)(a-b)=c.d Any number can be expressed as product of other numbers, this is trivial. Even the nondivisible prime number can be expressed in such way by choosing a and b such that either a+b or a-b is 1.

As for your proof..

a^n = b^n + c^n

u r trying to show ALL numbers can ONLY be written in a^n - b^n when n=2, and not n>2. Since c^n is included in ALL number, hence, there is no a^n = b^n + c^n for n>2.

U started out by stating n=2. a^2-b^2. You then factor this to become (a+b)(a-b), then u restate a and b in term of x, e and d.... a=x+e, b=x+d. you then substitute a and b with x+e and x+d. Then, u found for the product to be equal N, given one side is a+b, the other side must be a-b.... and hence u get back a^2-b^2. Then u conclude, n must be 2 and nothing else.

The problem is.... u r essentially doing nothing here except, stating a^2-b^2... write in in another form(factor form).... write a and b in another form(x,e,d).... then u do everything in reverse again by turning (x,e,d) back into a and b.... turn factor form into a^2-b^2 form again. see. u r not doing anything at all except taking a u-turn and come back again.

when a-b=d, now matter how fancifully u express a and b, their difference is still d.

So, u dont have to repeat your proof here again and again.

2006-06-14 06:32:12 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Pierre de Fermat was a seventeenth-century French jurist who was also an amateur mathematician. But while he was technically an "amateur" since he had a day job as a jurist, the leading historian of mathematics E. T. Bell, writing in the early part of the twentieth century, aptly called Fermat the "Prince of Amateurs." Bell believed Fermat to have achieved more important mathematical results than most "professional" mathematicians of his day. Bell argued that Fermat was the most prolific mathematician of the seventeenth century, a century that witnessed the work of some of the greatest mathematical brains of all time.



no proof available refer to the books its not a simple one you think

but here are the proofs small ones to that so try and have fun with these equations
http://fermatslasttheorem.blogspot.com/2005/09/sir-isaac-newton.html

good one

2006-06-08 12:31:59 · answer #2 · answered by alooo... 4 · 0 0

I'm not sure I understand, because the proof to Fermat's last theorem is not simple, and took Andrew Wiles several years of labor intensive work that spanned across several areas of mathematics and took 200 pages to prove.

2006-06-08 11:18:10 · answer #3 · answered by phyziczteacher 3 · 0 0

Great book on Andrew Wiles effort to prove it called
"Fermat's Enigma". As far as I know, there are no other
proofs and Wiles' was not simple.

2006-06-08 12:21:03 · answer #4 · answered by albert 5 · 0 0

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