1/inf = 2/inf = 0
2006-06-08 00:43:50
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answer #1
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answered by sanjeewa 4
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Proof that 2 equals 1
Let a and b be equal non-zero quantities
a = b
Multiply through by a
a2 = ab
Subtract b2
a2 â b2 = ab â b2
Factor both sides
(a â b)(a + b) = b(a â b)
Divide out (a â b)
a + b = b
Observing that a = b
b + b = b
Combine like terms on the left
2b = b
Divide by the non-zero b
2 = 1
2006-06-08 01:50:41
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Half 1 into 2 pieces.
2006-06-08 00:38:58
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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The guy who did the equation is correct but also,
If you do rounding up then 1.5 = 2, if you round both ways, in a sense 1=2
2006-06-08 04:45:52
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answer #4
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answered by revolutionman1379 3
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Tommy is correct. Otherwise 1 will never "equal" 2. Pay no attention to that proof that High Jack gave. It's full of error.
2006-06-08 04:58:48
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answer #5
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answered by Ervin C 1
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If someone insisting or trying to prove that 1=2 and you want to avoid dispute
2006-06-09 02:09:12
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answer #6
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answered by Farik 1
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1 is a female who is pregmant, she gives birth an out pops 2
2006-06-08 00:40:37
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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When an amoeba splits into two amoebas.
When a woman gives birth.
cut a donut in half.
2006-06-08 00:38:51
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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the main error in hi jack's response is that he divides by a-b. you can't because first you have to define what value a-b is, because in this situation, are actually dividing by 0, and that is undefined, so therefore, it's balls, like everyone else said.
2006-06-08 06:00:15
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answer #9
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answered by rajatg00 1
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in my day to every new couple they say 2 can live for the same as one!!!!!!are congratulations in order
2006-06-08 00:40:59
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answer #10
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answered by sharky 4
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