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2006-06-08 00:36:53 · 17 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

17 answers

1/inf = 2/inf = 0

2006-06-08 00:43:50 · answer #1 · answered by sanjeewa 4 · 4 3

Proof that 2 equals 1

Let a and b be equal non-zero quantities

a = b

Multiply through by a

a2 = ab

Subtract b2

a2 − b2 = ab − b2

Factor both sides

(a − b)(a + b) = b(a − b)

Divide out (a − b)

a + b = b

Observing that a = b

b + b = b

Combine like terms on the left

2b = b

Divide by the non-zero b

2 = 1

2006-06-08 01:50:41 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Half 1 into 2 pieces.

2006-06-08 00:38:58 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The guy who did the equation is correct but also,
If you do rounding up then 1.5 = 2, if you round both ways, in a sense 1=2

2006-06-08 04:45:52 · answer #4 · answered by revolutionman1379 3 · 0 0

Tommy is correct. Otherwise 1 will never "equal" 2. Pay no attention to that proof that High Jack gave. It's full of error.

2006-06-08 04:58:48 · answer #5 · answered by Ervin C 1 · 0 0

If someone insisting or trying to prove that 1=2 and you want to avoid dispute

2006-06-09 02:09:12 · answer #6 · answered by Farik 1 · 0 0

1 is a female who is pregmant, she gives birth an out pops 2

2006-06-08 00:40:37 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

When an amoeba splits into two amoebas.

When a woman gives birth.

cut a donut in half.

2006-06-08 00:38:51 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

the main error in hi jack's response is that he divides by a-b. you can't because first you have to define what value a-b is, because in this situation, are actually dividing by 0, and that is undefined, so therefore, it's balls, like everyone else said.

2006-06-08 06:00:15 · answer #9 · answered by rajatg00 1 · 0 0

in my day to every new couple they say 2 can live for the same as one!!!!!!are congratulations in order

2006-06-08 00:40:59 · answer #10 · answered by sharky 4 · 0 0

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