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3 answers

Anyone having sex with both circumcised and uncircumcised men should feel no difference between them, as condoms would minimize a partner's perception of the difference. If condoms are not being used, I wonder whether a partner could feel the difference between STD infected men and STD uninfected men.

Seriously, in order to determine whether or not there was a perceptible-to-you difference, and whether that difference was due to circumcision, you would have to use a much larger sample than most people experience. Then you'd have to learn whether the difference could be felt during oral, vaginal, anal, manual manipulation or whatever other type of sex you engaged in.

I suggest that if you really want to know, you'd need to have sex with at least 50 circumcised men and 50 uncircumcised, have every type of sex with each of them, and then record all of your observations and analyze them. (Though I can't imagine where you'd find the time or energy for such analysis.)

Even then, the results would show only what YOU can perceive, and would apply to no one else. In the end, I think you'd discover that the differences--if indeed differences were perceptible--are so much less important than things like motivation, mood, penis size, affection, compatibility, kindness, technique, and overall attraction, as to be irrelevant.

If you know where to get a grant to research the question, let me know! ;-)

2006-06-08 03:43:47 · answer #1 · answered by LazlaHollyfeld 6 · 1 0

Angel's answer is supported by scientific material I'd perused. To wit: "Once a woman experiences an uncircumcised man, she'll never be satisfied by a foreskin-less guy."
Reason: (If you must know what I read, e-mail me.)

2006-06-13 00:05:40 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yes. There is a definate difference.

2006-06-07 23:04:39 · answer #3 · answered by Dark Angel's Lady 1 · 0 0

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