If a man naturally has attraction to another man, we might say ok that's fine, but if that man is naturally attracted to seven year olds, we call them psychos. If he's naturally attracted to them, is that "attraction" wrong? And if so, does that dismiss the acceptance of homosexuality because it's "natural"?
2006-06-07 05:58:21 · 9 answers · asked by sabai2024 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Other - Politics & Government
You are correct. The arguement of 'natural attraction' is not by itself an acceptable reason for unusual sexual behavior.
Homosexuality is tolerated because it is between two consenting adults. Unlike attraction to children, rape, or bestiality which doesn't get the consent of the other party.
I do wonder why those in favor of homosexuality are against all polygamy. In both cases it's relationships between consenting adults. It seems inconsistent to me.
2006-06-07 06:05:36 · answer #1 · answered by Funchy 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Please! that is one dumb analogy.
There is a big difference for a homosexual being attracted to an adult male and a fixated pedophile who's main sexual interest is children.
It is a power issue, it is against a child, many have had more than 200 victims, children can't give consent and it is illegal!
What if it were your child or do you belong to NAMBLA? You are probably just dumping on homosexuals using the most obscene example to base your idiotic argument on!
I am glad I am not your wife answer man. SO you have only had sex. in the missionary position twice in your life? Something tells me that doesn't ring true!
2006-06-07 13:15:05 · answer #2 · answered by cantcu 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, it is in fact documented that a sexual interaction between an adult and a child will negatively impact the child's development and lifelong emotional well-being. By contrast, a mutually consenting relationship between two adults is just that.
Adults can make this distinction. Children lack the neurological development to weigh the multiple facets of a decision like this.
2006-06-07 13:04:46 · answer #3 · answered by paparicio 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why don't you ask one of those children who have been violated how they feel about it? I have a feeling you are one of them & you are now very much confused on these 2 issues that you have asked about. Have you tried counseling? It is going to take more than a question on yahoo answers to get to the core of your "issues" in regards to this matter. It MAY be natural for some people to have deviant thoughts, but it is never natural to ACT THEM OUT on an innocent!
2006-06-07 13:12:20 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
This arguement doesn't hold water. You're leading the question. The two situations differ as a seven year old hasn't the mental maturity to consent to sex. The reall deviance comes into play when one's desires lead them to ignore another person's consent.
2006-06-07 13:03:42 · answer #5 · answered by Miss Red 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sex should only be with the opponent sex for procreational purposes only, It should be done in only the missionary position so as not to be deviant. The truth is that a pedophile crosses a line and is a sick individual, and needs to be removed from the general population in order to protect young people.
2006-06-07 13:09:39 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, we call them pedophiles. Yes that attraction is wrong. There is no comparision between homosexuality and pedophilia. Pedophilia is a mental disorder. Homosexuality is not.
2006-06-07 13:01:45 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
There is a difference. One is a psychological illness and a federal crime. The other is legal, and consenting between two adults. There is no comparison, get it right.
2006-06-07 13:22:32 · answer #8 · answered by The Phenomenal One 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I agree with some polisci major - Amen
2006-06-07 13:03:34 · answer #9 · answered by workingclasshero 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋