After the spate of reports where suspects of violent or sexual crime have been said to suffer either bi-polar illness (manic depression), unipolar illness (deep chronic depression) or schizophrenia, it would seem every one of them did what he or she is alleged doing because of illness. Do you buy media hype about these illnesses which in reality do not create more violent personalities or behaviors than any in the general population? Why does the media make such a point of noting a suspect's mental illness and never saying that his/her behavior is an aberration even among sufferers, and is not typical of that mental illness? For you among sufferers, as I am, what do you think of this labeling? I'm getting tired of hearing that the first thing mentioned about a suspect is that he is "bi-polar."
2006-06-07
03:13:07
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2 answers
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asked by
Nightwriter21
4
in
Social Science
➔ Psychology
Please, you among the juvenile set who answer questions like you take off your clothes and leave them thrown around your room, refrain from grabbing easy points with throw-off and inane answers here. If you have a true contribution to make, I welcome that.
2006-06-07
03:16:09 ·
update #1