2006-06-06 20:07:53 · 12 answers · asked by Sachin B 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
zero
2006-06-06 22:33:59 · answer #1 · answered by p®in©e 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Although this looks a bit complex, in fact it's quite simple. The thing to remember here is that one of those numbers will be (x-x) which will equal 0. As I'm sure you know, anything multiplied by 0 equals 0 so it doesn't matter how many numbers there are, as soon as we come to the point where we multiply by (x-x) the answer becomes 0 and will remain so for any subsequent multiplications thereafter.
2006-06-07 03:16:36 · answer #2 · answered by brainyandy 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
well when you multiply all the numbers to z you will end up with 0 that is because you have x-x and anything subtracted from itself equals 0. which results in all those numbers being multiplied by 0 will = 0 check ya later â¥
2006-06-07 03:36:53 · answer #3 · answered by ♥ The One You Love To Hate♥ 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it will be 0
2006-06-18 15:16:22 · answer #4 · answered by boy4year2007 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Since one of factors of the given expression is of the form (x-x), the product of the given expression results in '0'.
2006-06-17 11:58:41 · answer #5 · answered by raobn 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's 0 due to (x-x)
Hey this question was asked to me 23 years back.
HAHAHAHA
2006-06-07 06:34:25 · answer #6 · answered by Pummy 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's 0 due to (x-x)
2006-06-07 03:14:32 · answer #7 · answered by ag_iitkgp 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Its exceptionally hard to evaluate although there is some chance in solving it.
2006-06-07 03:23:28 · answer #8 · answered by Kenneth Koh 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
0 only it has (x-x) within
2006-06-07 04:04:28 · answer #9 · answered by alooo... 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Probably a 'ZERO' in your test if you don't work it out :)
2006-06-07 03:10:57 · answer #10 · answered by Chiron 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋