Suppose y = 1/x,
then as 'x' goes to infinity, 'y' goes to zero:
Hence, our problem can be rewritten as:
limit (y->0) (1/y)*sin(y)
Applying L'Hospital's rule:
limit (y->0) cos(y)/1
= cos(0) = 1
Hence, the limit's value is 1.
2006-06-06 19:08:10
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Let 1/x = y
So y -->0 when x-->inf
lim xsin(1/x) as x-->inf = lim (sin y)/y as y -->0
lim (sin y)/y = 1.
Why? If y is measured in radian, the value of the sine of an angle is close to the value of the angle in radians.
let s = arc of a circle
y = angle subtended by the arc.
r = radius of the circle
The relation between them is: s = r y
For very small angle, the arc is nearly straight, so:
sin y = s/r
From above: y = s/r also.
So for very small angle (as y approaches zero):
sin y = y.
2006-06-07 02:34:05
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answer #2
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answered by dax 3
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Any function of sin (1/x) is undefined as x tends to infinity; it oscillates faster and faster between -1 and +1.
2006-06-07 02:18:33
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answer #3
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answered by zee_prime 6
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lim (sin(1/x))/(1/x) = 1
n-inf
2006-06-07 02:04:15
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answer #4
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answered by sanjeewa 4
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