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I am recently divorced and my ex has requested that i submit to drug testing so that i can see my kids. the judge agreed and ordered it so. I have no prior drug convictions or offenses but did go to voluntarily to a rehab for vicodin use. Is this legal? Do i have to test?

2006-06-06 15:19:20 · 4 answers · asked by sideshow 1 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

4 answers

YES

2006-06-06 15:25:15 · answer #1 · answered by Angel 1 · 0 0

A judge can do anything he wants to as long as it is with the atatutes of the state. Being that you once went to rehab, there is reasonable cause to order a drug test. Even though you didn't have any convictions of drugs, the rehab says you had a problem, and it's not a question as to weather you do it's you did.
Suspicion, probable cause, etc.

Also, with you making a big deal and wanting to fight it, it's making you look like you are guilty, although a perosn is innocent until proven guilty. So don't make yourself look suspicious.

2006-06-06 16:56:32 · answer #2 · answered by lilbreeze2000 3 · 0 0

The judge in civil court does not have to have a reason, it was just part of the request and you it appeard did not object enough or courter off something else,

And in the end, if you don't use drugs, why does it matter.
why did your attorney not courter with a request that she take drug tests also?

2006-06-06 15:24:49 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yes & yes

2006-06-06 17:57:49 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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