2006-06-06 09:04:45 · 4 answers · asked by bonshui 6 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
The quick answer is YES (although there are some extremely minute and subtle differences between the two, the detailed discussion of which is clearly beyond the limited scope of the Y!A format). Keep in mind, "universal" is a technical term in metaphysics, meaning that which is predicable of many. It is meant to capture the intuition that a variety of things can all have the same feature or property. For instance, many an objects (e.g an orange) or abstract representations (e.g. a circle) may all have the same universal feature of "roundness". In other words, what many things have in common, or a feature they share, is a universal or, in Plato's terms, a Form.
2006-06-09 13:48:28 · answer #1 · answered by lowonbrain 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The greatness of the philosophers of the classic time, in Greece, is that each one can stand by himself! Even if only the work of one would reach us, we could clearly understand his view! His time level! And that level has not been reached yet! Further, each one is unique and different for everyone else!
Thus, although Aristotle was a pupil of Plato, their work and stand, if we try to compare the two, are opposite! If we try to see them within the human race standing, they are the same!
2006-06-09 03:02:19 · answer #2 · answered by soubassakis 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes
2006-06-06 17:28:13 · answer #3 · answered by Korē 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Are you somehow related to SGT. Slaughter?
2006-06-06 23:05:43 · answer #4 · answered by rockphilo 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋