2006-06-06 07:44:41 · 2 answers · asked by Njideka K 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
I've been an attorney since 1993 and I've never heard the term "under letting". In a traditional sublease, the first tenant signs a sublease for some or all of space to another tenant. The sublessee does not have a direct contract with the owner/landlord. The original lessee remains liable to the landlord while the sublessee pays rent to the lessee/sublessor. Both can be evicted if the lessee fails to pay rent to the landlord.
Some leases prohibit subleases, so you should check with attorney in your state before doing a sublease.
2006-06-06 07:50:53 · answer #1 · answered by Carl 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Under letting may be an archaic British term with the same meaning as the American term sublease. In British terms, it's called sub-letting.
2006-06-06 08:03:03 · answer #2 · answered by Bostonian In MO 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋