what is the difference between sir fermats last theorem and the my statement which states that
"any given number having any given power can be expressed as difference of infinite sets of two perfect squares like 2 ^ (4) = 5 ^ (2) -3 ^(2)?
2006-06-05 22:51:01 · 3 answers · asked by rajesh bhowmick 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Fermat's last theorem is that there is no solution in positive integers the the equation x^n + y^n = z^n, with n>2.
The above equation is different because some of the terms are raised to the 2nd power instead of the nth power. It is also different because it asserts an infinite number of solutions and Fermat's theorem asserts no solutions.
2006-06-06 01:44:32 · answer #1 · answered by NotEasilyFooled 5 · 7⤊ 2⤋
the difference is one of them is hard to understand and the other is harder.
2006-06-06 05:57:07 · answer #2 · answered by beltman 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
hard to tell..maybe u should explain it better..
2006-06-06 05:56:53 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋