what is the difference between sir fermats last theorem and the law of numbers which states that any given number with any given power can be expressed as difference of infinite sets of two perfect squares? like 2 ^ (4) = 5 ^ (2) - 3 ^ (2).
2006-06-05 22:14:08 · 2 answers · asked by rajesh bhowmick 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
sir fermats last theorem states that any square can be expressed as difference of two perfect squares .
My statement states that any given number having any given power can be expressed as difference of infinite sets of two perfect squares which includes the squares,cubes and any power it may be but they can very easily be expressed as difference of infinite sets of two oerfect squares.
2006-06-05 22:28:31 · update #1
Fermat's Last Theorem states that no integer solution exists for the equation
a^n = (b^n) + (c^n)
where n is greater than 2.
Your equation has n = 2, so it does not contradict (or prove) Fermat's last theorem - it is one example of it.
2006-06-05 23:28:42 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Fermat's Last theorem is a generalisation of the Pythagorean Theorem.
2006-06-06 05:18:29 · answer #2 · answered by ag_iitkgp 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋