The sum of (-1)^n from 0 to infinite...1-1+1-1+1-1....
Grouping this sum like this first: (1-1)+(1-1)+(1-1)...=0+0+0+...=0
OR Use the following grouping: 1+(-1+1)+(-1+1)+...=1+0+0+0...=1
This is a fun problem, and shows that when using summation, be careful.
2006-06-05 22:15:09
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answer #1
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answered by russian2163 2
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Prove: 1 = 0
1. a = b + 1 [*(a-b)
2. (a-b)a = (a-b)(b+1) [expand
3. a^2 - ab = ab + a - b^2 - b [-a
4. a2 - ab -a = ab + a -a - b2 - b[factorise
5. a(a - b - 1) = b(a - b - 1) [/a-b-1
6. a = b [substitute into 1.
7. b + 1 = b [-b
8. Therefore, 1 = 0
of course as a=b+1, a-b-1 = 0 so step 5->6 is invalid, as division by zero is not allowed.
2006-06-05 22:07:06
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answer #2
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answered by mc043 2
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If 1=0 then your system has no solutions.
2006-06-05 21:48:19
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answer #3
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answered by minuteblue 6
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i can show u
se :-
1 = 0
2006-06-05 21:53:49
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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let say 0!=1! (! means factorial)
so, 0=1
that's all,
2006-06-05 22:07:50
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answer #5
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answered by Dark Angel 5
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no, we cannot show this, without violating the mathematical rules.
we found several questions and answers of this type.
by this time, regular followers would have understood the concept.
You may please go through Basic Math lessons on www.math.com
2006-06-05 22:42:21
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answer #6
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answered by K N Swamy 3
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let us say that
1=study
0=fail
Here it goes
dont study=fail---------(1)
study=dont fail---------(2)
adding (1) n (2)
study+dont study=fail+dont fail
study(1+dont)=fail(1+dont)
study=fail
1=0
2006-06-05 23:00:22
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answer #7
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answered by tarenirator 2
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As a number or value?
2006-06-05 21:47:16
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answer #8
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answered by djoldgeezer 7
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One is a being....Being are nothingness....
One equals nothing....
2006-06-05 21:49:25
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answer #9
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answered by ceasefear 2
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