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What is the difference between these two categories? How to identify them? Many thanks.

2006-11-17 10:07:42 · 2 個解答 · 發問者 ? 2 in 社會與文化 語言

2 個解答

Yes, the above answer is perfectly right. A Transitive verb (vt) needs an object to complete the meaning. An intransitive verb (vi) does not. If an vi goes with an object, it needs a preposition.

Examples:
(1) harm, vt

Example: It will no harm you .

- Incorrect just to say ^It will harm^, since it must be followed by an object, e.g., you.
- If there is no object indeed, people usually say it in another way, e..g, It will do no harm (harm is a noun here).
- No need to put any preposition after harm, e.g., It will harm to you , It will harm on you, incorrect.

(2) arrive, vi

Example: He arrives. OR He arrives in Hong Kong.

- Incorrect to say ^he arrives Hong Kong^. Needs the prepsotion like in or at.


Many words can be used as either vt or vi in different situations

Example
He will tell a story. (Tell as a vt)
Only time will tell (Tell as vi)

2006-11-17 10:53:20 · answer #1 · answered by susanlau 7 · 0 0

Transitive verb needs an object, but intransitive doesn't.

In the dictionary, there is a "t" or "it" to indicate the type of verb.

2006-11-17 10:15:20 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

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