What is the difference between these two categories? How to identify them? Many thanks.
2006-11-17 10:07:42 · 2 個解答 · 發問者 ? 2 in 社會與文化 ➔ 語言
Yes, the above answer is perfectly right. A Transitive verb (vt) needs an object to complete the meaning. An intransitive verb (vi) does not. If an vi goes with an object, it needs a preposition.
Examples:
(1) harm, vt
Example: It will no harm you .
- Incorrect just to say ^It will harm^, since it must be followed by an object, e.g., you.
- If there is no object indeed, people usually say it in another way, e..g, It will do no harm (harm is a noun here).
- No need to put any preposition after harm, e.g., It will harm to you , It will harm on you, incorrect.
(2) arrive, vi
Example: He arrives. OR He arrives in Hong Kong.
- Incorrect to say ^he arrives Hong Kong^. Needs the prepsotion like in or at.
Many words can be used as either vt or vi in different situations
Example
He will tell a story. (Tell as a vt)
Only time will tell (Tell as vi)
2006-11-17 10:53:20 · answer #1 · answered by susanlau 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Transitive verb needs an object, but intransitive doesn't.
In the dictionary, there is a "t" or "it" to indicate the type of verb.
2006-11-17 10:15:20 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋