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Why do I keep reading different definitions of 'term' babies on Answers???
One day I read anything beyond 38 weeks is considered term, the next it's 37, then 36....!

I just want to say that if the process isn't interfered with, average pregnancies for white females are:
288 days for first time pregnancies.
284 for second and subsequent babies.

That means on AVERAGE first babies come at 41+1 and second babies come at 40+4.

Babies are not full term before their due dates, and they are not overdue until they're at least 42 weeks AND showing signs of postmaturity syndrome.

It's true that some babies come early, and it's true that some of those have no problems, but it's certainly not true for all. The definition of term is based on a two hundred year old dating system that determined whether the baby was likely to survive. Even 50 years ago 36weekers were touch and go.

Does anyone else agree? Why do these dates vary so much?

2007-03-24 08:22:24 · 9 answers · asked by Up-side-down 4 in Pregnancy & Parenting Pregnancy

9 answers

That is very interesting. I am not quite sure but what other women are saying makes sense because the doctors say that your due date can be off by 2 weeks in either direction. My doctor said that before 37 weeks they will try to stop your labour but that after 37 weeks they will not try to stop it. On the other end she told me that they will let me go over my due date 7-10 days. I know it used to be 2 weeks and I think I would fight them on this one because I think it is best to let the baby go as long a it needs to, but if I go over the 10 days, my husband will not be able to be there. I know there are reasons for their decisions based on research and what they feel is best for the baby and even though I disagree with inducing labour unless there is danger to the baby, I really want my husband to be able to be there for the birth of his son. I think it is different in the States than in Canada though because I was talking to my obstetrician the other day and told her that it seems to me that from what I have read on the internet, there is a high occurance of women that seem to be having inductions or at least some sort of interference (or they are trying to put themselves into labour) before they get even get to their due dates. She said that probably alot of what I am reading could be from States side and that it is not the same in Canada. Anyway that is all that I know about it. I do agree that the least amount of interferance is best. On the other hand though, there are definately alot less infant and mother deaths due to childbirth these days than there were 50 years ago, and that is because of modern medicine and all of the research that they have done that has helped them come to these decisions on the best procedures for labour and delivery.

2007-03-24 09:26:05 · answer #1 · answered by emilyanne 2 · 0 0

I was taught in nursing school and have heard it a million times from some Dr's that 38 weeks and on is considered full term & 42 weeks is considered post term. The variance is usually caused by either 1. the mom doesn't know the first day of LPM and is just making a guess or 2. the fact that no one knows exactly when a woman conceives. There are so many reasons as to why a woman goes over her due date and as to why they might go "early". It's not an exact science really.

2007-03-24 08:42:40 · answer #2 · answered by Crystal 5 · 0 0

The dates vary because pregnancies vary. Alot. I've always heard and read that 38 weeks is the earliest a baby is considered "full term." I know very few women who even made it a full 40 weeks, let alone 41 +1. My baby was born at 37 1/2 weeks, and this one doesn't seem like it's going to make it much further than that!

2007-03-24 08:35:40 · answer #3 · answered by Lindsay M 5 · 1 1

With my first pregnancy, when I hid 40 weeks, the doctor said "you're not even close".

I wasn't dialated, or effaced.

But, 4 days later, I went into labor, and 2 days later my son was born (yes, 42 hours of labor!!)

So I was 40weeks + 6 days.

2007-03-24 08:43:06 · answer #4 · answered by kabmiller@verizon.net 4 · 0 0

anything 38 weeks -40 weeks is full term. After that they are considered late or past term.

2007-03-24 08:46:32 · answer #5 · answered by Who Me? 4 · 0 0

i think its cuz they go by ultrasounds which if taken at the best time can be 2 weeks off either way

p.s. i went 40+6 and so did most of the people i know with their first i hope to go on my due date this time

2007-03-24 08:36:43 · answer #6 · answered by momma 4 · 0 0

i believe it is because doctors cannot really tell when the baby was concieved, my doctor told me that full term was anything after 38 weeks, my son was considered full term and he was borned on his due date.

2007-03-24 08:30:34 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

i think that it is because they cant find out the exact conception date and there is a two week period from your period to the time where you may have concieved i believe anything before 38 weeks is early but that is just my opinion :)

2007-03-24 09:15:53 · answer #8 · answered by mommy2three2008 1 · 0 0

I'm not sure, but my doctor and I have discussed induction for some personal reasons and she will not do it until I am 39 weeks at least.

2007-03-24 08:44:02 · answer #9 · answered by I love sushi 4 · 0 0

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