2007-01-15 09:35:02 · 6 answers · asked by dolly m 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Elections
As long as they don't pass a law requiring anyone to consult the chaplain or prohibiting them from practicing other religions, the 1st amendment has not been violated.
2007-01-15 10:02:37 · answer #1 · answered by STEVEN F 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't know. Are they passing any law in respect to the establishment of religion? Thats all the constitution says on the matter.
I think we need to appoint you a spell checker though.
Your question is hurting my brain.
2007-01-15 09:42:31 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Dolly, try a little harder. How about reading your question before you post it? I'm shocked you spelled the word 'constitutional' correctly given all the other mistakes you've made.
2007-01-15 16:15:59 · answer #3 · answered by Aine 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Supreme Court thinks so. And I agree with them and their express reason for supporting it.
2007-01-15 11:22:12 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Heayl know. Whut reight do thay heve to do thet?
2007-01-15 11:03:11 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
your question fried my brain. what heck you talking about. "chaplainto" "reiligous ben"???????
2007-01-15 09:40:15 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋