Why do American people speak Spanish- for example- with an American accent and vice versa?
Personally it's a piece of cake to me to switch to the native accent even though I'm not Spanish in the least.
2007-01-07 14:30:06 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
Some people have a better ear for accents and such, which makes it easier for them to reproduce. Believe it or not, there are actually some people who can't even hear the stressed syllable of a word--in ANY language. So depending on the person, it may be an inability to REPRODUCE a heard accent, or an inability to HEAR and RECOGNIZE an accent.
And I'm not sure what you meant by "native accent", because speaking Spanish with a "Spanish" accent vs speaking Spanish with a "native" Spanish accent are completely different and depend on a lot of things, lol. Just specify on your words! :)
For me, It's always been easy to pick up and imitate voices and accents, even though there are still a few accents I have trouble with. So I feel ya and I didn't understand it for a while, either!
2007-01-07 14:50:26 · answer #1 · answered by Stina 5 · 3⤊ 0⤋
It is because some of us have the ability to roll our toungues and others do not. i know this annoys me to. If that is not bad enough try having kids and their american spanish teacher is teaching them to pronouce the words like that. UUUUGGG. I try to correct her and she sends me pages from a span/ eng . Dictionary. What an airhead . Anywho you just have to ignore it .Even our president does it.
2007-01-07 22:37:32 · answer #2 · answered by Alicia S 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
some people are just really bad at trying to do fake accents. it probably depends on how their parents talk. I can't roll my l's...
~Christian
2007-01-07 22:38:30 · answer #3 · answered by Christian H 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because their mouth and throat muscles can't change their position and shape easily. Basically, they are physically stuck in their language.
2007-01-07 22:32:57 · answer #4 · answered by Juan 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋