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2006-12-13 20:07:30 · 5 answers · asked by Ali k 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

5 answers

Let your limes be x. Then ln x = ln(1/n) + (1/n)*ln(n!). Using Stirling's formula ln(n!) approaches n*ln(n) - n when n goes to infinity. Therefore you get ln x = - ln n + ln n - 1 = -1. Therefore you limes x = e^-1.
n.b. For Stirling formula see Google.

2006-12-13 20:43:28 · answer #1 · answered by fernando_007 6 · 0 0

Lim 1/n * (n!)^1/n = Lim [ (n-1)(n-2)....3*2*1)]^1/n
As n ---> infinity, = 1 as anything to the power 0 is 1 ( 1/infinity =0)

2006-12-14 04:40:56 · answer #2 · answered by Venkateswaran A 2 · 0 0

As a math teacher, there is a theorem in math that 1 / infinity = 0, so
lim 1/n * ( n ! )^1/n when n-->infinitely
will become (1/infinity) * (n!)^1/infinity = 0*(n!)^0 = 0*1 = 0.
Understand, to fully understand this, try to look up different theorems on analytical geometry and calculus related math books.

2006-12-14 06:16:51 · answer #3 · answered by Sheila 2 · 0 0

(1/n)[(n!)^(1/n)] as n-> infinity
take logarithms then,
-ln n + (1/n)ln n! = -ln n + (1/n).[n.ln n - n] = -ln n +ln n -1 =-1
then ln {(1/n)[(n!)^(1/n)]} = -1 , as n->infinity
=> (1/n)[(n!)^(1/n)] ->exp (-1) as n-> infinity

I've used Stirling's formula with n.ln n -n for ln n!, it is actually n.ln n - n +1 , but since n->infinity there is no difference as 1/n ->0

2006-12-14 05:21:59 · answer #4 · answered by yasiru89 6 · 0 0

Take ln of this problem to get ln(1/n * ( n ! )^1/n) = ln(1/n) + ln(n!)^1/n

1/n*ln(n!) = 1/n* (sum of ln(i) from 1 to n) = average of ln(i) ---> infinity

ln(1/n) --> negative infinity



Hmm...Good question!

2006-12-14 04:22:15 · answer #5 · answered by J G 4 · 0 0

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